Docket:
T-1223-11
Citation:
2012 FC 923
Ottawa, Ontario, July
20, 2012
PRESENT: The Honourable Mr. Justice Mosley
BETWEEN:
|
EDWARD PEARCE
|
|
|
Applicant
|
and
|
|
THE PAROLE BOARD OF CANADA
|
|
|
Respondent
|
|
|
|
REASONS FOR
JUDGMENT AND JUDGMENT
[1]
Edward
Pearce is serving a sentence in a federal penitentiary at Stephenville, Newfoundland. When he was sentenced, the Corrections and Conditional Release Act provided
a mechanism for an accelerated parole review for eligible offenders. While his
case was in a queue for consideration by the Parole Board, amendments to repeal
this procedure were brought into effect. Mr. Pearce’s application was,
therefore, refused. He contends that he was denied procedural fairness and
that he was entitled to consideration under the law as it was when his
application for accelerated review was submitted.
[2]
For
the reasons that follow, the application is granted and the matter is remitted
to the Board for reconsideration in accordance with these reasons.
BACKGROUND:
[3]
Under
the Corrections and Conditional Release Act, SC 1992, c 20 (hereafter
“CCRA”) as it read prior to March 28, 2011, aaccelerated parole review was a
procedure that permitted an inmate to apply for conditional release after one
sixth of his sentence (s.125 of the CCRA).
[4]
Mr.
Pearce is a substance abuser with a criminal record who sold drugs to support
his own habit. He received a five year sentence for drug offences on October 1,
2010. Under
the accelerated procedure in place at that time, the applicant would have been
eligible for early day parole on August 1, 2011, subject to approval by the
Board.
[5]
Notwithstanding
the length of the term imposed, Mr. Pearce was considered a good candidate for
accelerated day and full parole as a first time federal offender by
Correctional Service of Canada (CSC) staff at the Western Correctional Centre
in Stephenville. His prior criminal history was not recent and had
involved relatively minor non-violent property and drug crimes for which he had
received provincial sentences. Moreover, he had family and
other support in the community. The police agency that had arrested and charged
him was not opposed to his release under supervision.
[6]
The
applicant was informed that CSC was recommending him for accelerated parole on
March 17, 2011. CSC staff was aware that Parliament had enacted the Abolition
of Early Parole Act, SC 2011, c 11
(hereafter “AEPA”). The AEPA received Royal Assent on March 23, 2010. It was
brought into force by Order in Council on March 28, 2011. Under that
legislation, section 119.1 and 125-126.1 of the CCRA were repealed.
[7]
On
March 25, 2011, CSC was requested by a Board Case Review Officer to submit all
documentation concerning Mr. Pearce’s case in order to permit the Board to
proceed with the review before the entry into force of the AEPA. His
file was one of two at the Stephenville penitentiary that were ready to proceed
but the documentation in his file was not received at the Board’s Moncton
offices until about mid-day on the 25th. At that time,
it was placed in a queue of some 65 parole applications. The record does not
disclose how many of these were from offenders affected by the change in
legislation.
[8]
The
Board considered the pending applications until 4:30 p.m. at which time it
adjourned for the weekend, having dealt with about half of the cases on its
list for that day. The Panel resumed its work the following Monday.
[9]
On
March 31, 2011 the Board denied accelerated parole release to the applicant
because of the entry into force of the AEPA. The applicant appealed that
decision on April 6, 2011 with the assistance of a CSC employee.
[10]
The
Appeal Division dismissed the appeal on June 6, 2011 finding that the Board’s
decision was consistent with the transitional provisions of the AEPA and the
applicant could no longer benefit from accelerated parole consideration.
[11]
This
application for judicial review of the Appeal Division’s decision is brought under s.18.1 of
the Federal Courts Act, RSC, 1985, c F-7.
RELEVANT
LEGISLATION:
[12]
Sections
5 and 10 of the AEPA are relevant to this application. They read as follows:
5. The
heading before section 125 and sections 125 to 126.1 of the Act [the Corrections and
Conditional Release Act]
are repealed.
10.
(1) Subject to subsection (2), the accelerated parole review process set
out in sections 125 to 126.1 of the Corrections and Conditional
Release Act, as those sections read on the day before the day on which
section 5 comes into force, does not apply, as of that day, to offenders who
were sentenced, committed or transferred to penitentiary, whether the
sentencing, committal or transfer occurs before, on or after the day of that
coming into force.
(2)
For greater certainty, the repeal of sections 125 to 126.1 of the Corrections
and Conditional Release Act does not affect the validity of a
direction made under those sections before the day on which section 5 comes
into force.
|
5.
L’intertitre précédant l’article 125 et les articles 125 à 126.1 de la
même loi [la Loi sur le système correctionnel et la mise en liberté sous
condition] sont abrogés.
10.
(1) Sous réserve du paragraphe (2), la procédure d’examen expéditif
prévue par les articles 125 à 126.1 de la Loi sur le système correctionnel
et la mise en liberté sous condition, dans leur version antérieure
à la date d’entrée en vigueur de l’article 5, cesse de s’appliquer, à compter
de cette date, à l’égard de tous les délinquants condamnés ou transférés au
pénitencier, que la condamnation ou le transfert ait eu lieu à cette date ou
avant ou après celle-ci.
(2)
Il demeure entendu que l’abrogation des articles 125 à 126.1 de la Loi sur
le système correctionnel et la mise en liberté sous condition n’a
aucun effet sur la validité des ordonnances rendues sous le régime de ces
articles avant la date d’entrée en vigueur de l’article 5.
|
[13]
Sections
119.1, 125(2)&(4), and 126(1) of the CCRA as they read on
March 27, 2011 prior to the coming into force of the AEPA are:
119.1 The portion of
the sentence of an offender who is eligible for accelerated parole review
under sections 125 and 126 that must be served before the offender may be
released on day parole is six months, or one sixth of the sentence, whichever
is longer.
125. (2) The Service
shall, at the time prescribed by the regulations, review the case of an
offender to whom this section applies for the purpose of referral of the case
to the Board for a determination under section 126.
[…]
(4) On
completion of a review pursuant to subsection (2), the Service shall, within
such period as is prescribed by the regulations preceding the offender’s
eligibility date for full parole, refer the case to the Board together with
all information that, in its opinion, is relevant to the case.
126. (1) The
Board shall review without a hearing, at or before the time prescribed by the
regulations, the case of an offender referred to it pursuant to section 125.
|
119.1 Le temps
d’épreuve pour l’admissibilité à la semi-liberté est, dans le cas d’un
délinquant admissible à la procédure d’examen expéditif en vertu des articles
125 et 126, six mois ou, si elle est supérieure, la période qui équivaut au
sixième de la peine.
125.
(2) Le Service procède, au cours de la période prévue par règlement, à
l’étude des dossiers des délinquants visés par le présent article en vue de
leur transmission à la Commission pour décision conformément à l’article 126.
[…]
(4) Au
terme de l’étude, le Service transmet à la Commission, dans les délais
réglementaires impartis mais avant la date d’admissibilité du délinquant à la
libération conditionnelle totale, les renseignements qu’il juge utiles.
126. (1) La
Commission procède sans audience, au cours de la période prévue par règlement
ou antérieurement, à l’examen des dossiers transmis par le Service ou les
autorités correctionnelles d’une province.
|
[14]
Also
pertinent is Section 159 of the Corrections and Conditional Release
Regulations, SOR/92-620 (hereafter the Regulations):
159.
(1) The
Service shall review the case of an offender to whom section 125 of the Act
applies within one month after the offender's admission to a penitentiary, or
to a provincial correctional facility where the sentence is to be served in
such a facility.
(2)
The Service shall refer the case of an offender to the Board pursuant to
subsection 125(4) of the Act not later than three months before the
offender's eligibility date for full parole.
(3)
The Board shall, pursuant to subsection 126(1) of the Act, review the case of
an offender not later than seven weeks before the offender's eligibility date
for full parole.
(4) A
panel shall, pursuant to subsection 126(4) of the Act, review the case of an
offender before the offender's eligibility date for full parole.
|
159.
(1)
Le Service doit examiner le cas du délinquant visé à l'article 125 de la Loi
dans le mois qui suit son admission dans un pénitencier ou dans un
établissement correctionnel provincial lorsqu'il doit purger sa peine dans
cet établissement.
(2)
Le Service doit, conformément au paragraphe 125(4) de la Loi, transmettre à
la Commission le cas du délinquant au plus tard trois mois avant la date de
son admissibilité à la libération conditionnelle totale.
(3)
La Commission doit, conformément au paragraphe 126(1) de la Loi, examiner le
cas du délinquant au plus tard sept semaines avant la date de son
admissibilité à la libération conditionnelle totale.
(4)
Le comité doit, conformément au paragraphe 126(4) de la Loi, réexaminer le
cas du délinquant avant la date de son admissibilité à la libération
conditionnelle totale.
|
[15]
Section
43 of the Interpretation Act, RSC 1985, c-I-21 is also relevant:
43.
Where an
enactment is repealed in whole or in part, the repeal does not
(a)
revive any enactment or anything not in force or existing at the time when
the repeal takes effect,
(b)
affect the previous operation of the enactment so repealed or anything duly
done or suffered thereunder,
(c)
affect any right, privilege, obligation or liability acquired, accrued,
accruing or incurred under the enactment so repealed,
(d)
affect any offence committed against or contravention of the provisions of
the enactment so repealed, or any punishment, penalty or forfeiture incurred
under the enactment so repealed, or
(e)
affect any investigation, legal proceeding or remedy in respect of any right,
privilege, obligation or liability referred to in paragraph (c) or in
respect of any punishment, penalty or forfeiture referred to in paragraph (d),
and an
investigation, legal proceeding or remedy as described in paragraph (e)
may be instituted, continued or enforced, and the punishment, penalty or
forfeiture may be imposed as if the enactment had not been so repealed.
|
43.
L’abrogation,
en tout ou en partie, n’a pas pour conséquence :
a) de rétablir des textes ou
autres règles de droit non en vigueur lors de sa prise d’effet;
b) de porter atteinte à
l’application antérieure du texte abrogé ou aux mesures régulièrement prises
sous son régime;
c) de porter atteinte aux droits
ou avantages acquis, aux obligations contractées ou aux responsabilités
encourues sous le régime du texte abrogé;
d) d’empêcher la poursuite des
infractions au texte abrogé ou l’application des sanctions — peines,
pénalités ou confiscations — encourues aux termes de celui-ci;
e) d’influer sur les enquêtes,
procédures judiciaires ou recours relatifs aux droits, obligations,
avantages, responsabilités ou sanctions mentionnés aux alinéas c) et d).
Les
enquêtes, procédures ou recours visés à l’alinéa e) peuvent être
engagés et se poursuivre, et les sanctions infligées, comme si le texte
n’avait pas été abrogé.
|
ISSUES:
[16]
The
respondent raised a preliminary objection to arguments advanced by the
applicant in his memorandum with respect to the interpretation of s. 10 of the
AEPA as they were not referenced in his Notice of Application. I ruled in
favour of the applicant at the hearing with brief oral reasons. My reasons for
that ruling are set out below in the analysis.
[17]
Apart
from the preliminary objection, the issues raised on this
application are:
a.
What
is the appropriate standard of review?
b.
Was
the decision of the Appeal Division correct in law?
c.
Did
the Board breach its duty of procedural fairness to the applicant?
ANALYSIS:
1. Standard of Review
[18]
The
appropriate
standard of review for decisions of the Appeal Division has been found to be
reasonableness: Scott v Canada (Attorney General), 2010 FC 496 at para
32; Tozzi c Canada (Procureur général), 2007 CF 825 at paras 23-35; Latham
v Canada, 2006 FC 284 at paras 6-8; and Bouchard v Canada (National
Parole Board), 2008 FC 248 at paras 22-28.
[19]
The
applicant submits that this application raises a pure question of law. Such
questions are normally reviewable upon a standard of correctness: Canada (Attorney General) v JP, 2010 FCA 90 paras 20-21 and 45; and McMurray v Canada (National Parole), 2004 FC 462 at para 136.
[20]
The
respondent contends that any question of law at issue in these proceedings is
not of central importance to the legal system: Dunsmuir v New Brunswick,
2008 SCC 9 at para 60. In Alberta (Information
and Privacy Commissioner) v Alberta Teachers' Association, 2011 SCC 61 at
paragraph 39, the Supreme Court stated that it should be presumed that the
appropriate standard is reasonableness when the decision of the tribunal under
review concerns the interpretation or application of its home statute.
[21]
This
matter primarily concerns the application by the Appeal Division of s.10 of the
AEPA to specific facts. It raises questions of statutory interpretation
concerning the effect of possibly vested rights and privilege which are
associated under common law and the Interpretation Act. In JP v Canada (Attorney General), 2009 FC 402, aff’d by 2010 FCA 90, at para 15 the
Court stated:
[15] Here, the Board interpreted
its "home statute" (the CCRA) and a related statute (the YCJA) but
the questions at issue in these proceedings have not arisen in the context of
the Board's usual administrative regime respecting the grant of parole to adult
offenders. In the particular circumstances in which this application has
been brought, I have no reason to believe that the Board has any greater degree
of expertise than the Court in construing the interplay between the two
statutes. The questions of law that arise may be considered to be of
significant importance to the youth justice system and outside the Board's
expertise. Accordingly, I am satisfied that the Board's decision does not
require deference and that I must be concerned with whether the Board correctly
interpreted the applicable legislation in its calculation of J.P.'s parole
eligibility.
[Emphasis added]
[22]
The
Appeal Division does not possess any special expertise with respect to the Interpretation
Act and the common law. The interplay between the CCRA, the transitional
provisions of the AEPA, principles of common law and the Interpretation Act
lies outside the tribunal’s area of expertise. Furthermore, the questions of
law raised by this application can only have one answer: whether the
applicant’s entitlement to accelerated review was protected or not. There is no
range of possible reasonable outcomes. I conclude, therefore, that the question
of law in this matter is subject to the correctness standard of review.
[23]
The
appropriate standard of review for questions of procedural fairness is
correctness: Canada (Minister of
Citizenship and Immigration) v Khosa, 2009 SCC 12 at para 43.
2. Preliminary objection to
interpretation arguments
[24]
The
principal ground of review relied upon in the Notice of Application was a
breach of procedural fairness:
The
Parole Board failed to exercise its jurisdiction by unfairly delaying a decision
upon the Applicant’s application for accelerated release from March 25, 2011
until March 28, 2011 – the date that legislation (Abolition of Early Parole
Act) came into effect abolishing accelerated release.
[25]
The
interpretation arguments were first developed in the applicant’s Memorandum of
Fact and Law. The respondent contends that this was contrary to Rule
301(e) of the Federal Courts Rules, SOR/98-106.
[26]
As
Justice MacKay stated in Friends of Point Pleasant Park v Canada (Attorney
General), [2000] FCJ No 2012 at paragraph 15: “[a]voidance of surprise is
the objective of the Court's Rules, in particular Rule 301(e)…”. In this
instance, the respondent could not reasonably argue surprise.
[27]
When
pressed at the hearing, counsel for the respondent fairly acknowledged that she
could not readily identify what prejudice her client may have experienced as a
result of the failure of the applicant to raise the arguments at the first
instance. In particular, she could not describe what type of affidavit evidence
the respondent might have presented to what are, essentially, questions of law.
Counsel also acknowledged that she had had an adequate opportunity to provide
written representations and prepare oral submissions in response to the
interpretation arguments. There was no request to submit supplementary
affidavit evidence in support of the respondent’s position.
[28]
In
Stumpf v Canada (Minister of Citizenship and Immigration), 2002 FCA 148,
289 NR 165, the Court of Appeal allowed the applicants to raise an issue in oral
argument which had not been raised in the judicial review or in any of the
proceedings before the Board, considering that the record disclosed all of the
relevant facts and there was no suggestion that the Minister would be
prejudiced if the issue was considered.
[29]
I
am satisfied that the record in these proceedings discloses all of the relevant
facts and that the Minister is not prejudiced by consideration of the
arguments. Had prejudiced been established, I would have considered an
adjournment to allow the respondent to submit supplementary affidavit evidence.
That remedy was not requested. As the matter was of particular
importance to the applicant I concluded that I should exercise my discretion in
his favour: see Kinsey
v Canada (Attorney General), 2007 FC 543 at paras 33-34.
3. Was the Appeal Division’s decision
correct?
[30]
The
evidence is that by mid-day on March 25, 2011, three days prior to the coming
into force of the AEPA, the Board had received all of the documentation
required from CSC to consider the applicant’s eligibility for accelerated
parole. The applicant had been informed that CSC had recommended that he be
granted early parole.
[31]
The
Board was aware that March 25, 2011 was the last day on which they could review
his case assuming they did not sit on the weekend. There is no evidence that
the Board purposefully and willfully delayed its decision on the applicant’s
case. The Board is entitled to determine what priority it will give to the
applications before it when it conducts hearings and to fix its own hearings
schedule.
[32]
When
it reached the applicant’s file on March 31, 2011, the Board considered on a
reading of s.10 of the AEPA that it could not review the applicant’s case as it
had lost the authority to grant early parole as of March 28, 2011 when the AEPA
was brought into effect. The Appeal Division found no error in that
determination.
[33]
Section
10 is a transitional provision which provides, subject to the limitation in
subsection 10 (2), that the accelerated parole review process no longer applies
to offenders who were sentenced, committed or transferred to penitentiary
before the coming into force of the repeal of CCRA sections 125 to 126.1.
[34]
Subsection
10 (2) of the AEPA states that the repeal of CCRA sections 125 to 126.1 does not
affect the validity of a direction (“ordonnances”) made under those provisions
before the day on which section 5, the enactment giving effect to the repeal,
comes into force. In effect, the subsection safeguards decisions (“directions”,
“ordonnances”) made under the regime as it was prior to the abolition of the
accelerated parole review provisions of the CCRA.
[35]
At
first impression, the transitional provisions are clear: subsection 10(1)
indicates that all offenders are covered by the repeal including those
sentenced and committed to a penitentiary prior to the enactment of the AEPA;
and subsection 10(2) specifies that any early parole decision made prior to the
coming into force of the legislation are not affected.
[36]
There
is no indication in the record, however, that the Board or the Appeal Division
considered the effect of s. 43 of the Interpretation Act on its reading
of the transitional provisions of the AEPA. The Interpretation Act is
not silent on the effect of repeals.
[37]
For
convenient reference, the relevant provisions of section 43 of the Interpretation
Act are set out again below:
43.
Where an
enactment is repealed in whole or in part, the repeal does not
…
(c)
affect any right, privilege, obligation or liability acquired, accrued,
accruing or incurred under the enactment so repealed,
…
(e)
affect any investigation, legal proceeding or remedy in respect of any
right, privilege, obligation or liability referred to in paragraph (c)
…
and
an investigation, legal proceeding or remedy as described in paragraph (e)
may be instituted, continued or enforced …
|
43.
L’abrogation,
en tout ou en partie, n’a pas pour conséquence :
…
c) de porter atteinte aux droits
ou avantages acquis, aux obligations contractées ou aux responsabilités
encourues sous le régime du texte abrogé;
…
e) d’influer sur les enquêtes,
procédures judiciaires ou recours relatifs aux droits, obligations,
avantages, responsabilités ou sanctions mentionnés aux alinéas c) et d).
Les
enquêtes, procédures ou recours visés à l’alinéa e) peuvent être
engagés et se poursuivre, et les sanctions infligées, comme si le texte
n’avait pas été abrogé.
|
[Emphasis added]
[38]
The
respondent submits that the effect of s. 43 is to protect vested rights
acquired under the repealed legislation. Parole is not a right but a privilege:
Mitchell v R, [1976] 2 S.C.R. 570 at para 7; Lopez v Canada (National Parole Board), 2001 BCCA 742 at para 32; and Berenstein v Canada (National Parole Board), [1996] FCJ No 448 at para 18. The respondent submits
further that no one has a legal right to have an application for a statutory
benefit determined in accordance with the eligibility criteria in place when
the application was made: Apotex Inc v Canada (Attorney General), [2000]
4 FC 264, Evans JA.’s concurrence, at para 82.
[39]
The
respondent is correct that parole has been characterized by the Courts as a
privilege rather than a right. However, s.43 of Interpretation Act
includes privileges accrued or accruing under the repealed legislation as well
as rights. The
French version refers to “droits ou avantages acquis”. Repeals
do not affect an accrued or accruing privilege, do not affect any proceedings
related to that privilege and proceedings are to continue as if the repealed
provision was still in effect.
[40]
The
doctrine of vested rights applied to privilege at common law. The following
comment was made by Justice Dickson, as he was then, referring to section 35 of
the Interpretation Act, RSC 1970, c I-23 (now s.43 of the Interpretation
Act), at p.283-284 of Gustavson Drilling (1964) Ltd v Minister of
National Revenue, [1977] 1 S.C.R. 271:
This
section is merely the statutory embodiment of the common law presumption in
respect of vested rights as it applies to the repeal of legislative enactments
and in my opinion the section does nothing to advance appellant's case.
Appellant must still establish a right or privilege acquired or accrued under
the enactment prior to repeal, and this it cannot do.
[41]
The
interests protected by “privileges” and “rights” are very similar. In Le Strange v
Pettefar,
(1939) 161 LT 300 at 301, cited by Canadian Union of Postal Workers v Canada
Post Corp, [1994] 3 FC 140 at paragraph 39 and Hall v Canada (Minister
of Employment and Immigration), [1983] OJ No 376 at paragraph 23, Luxmoore
L.J. defines privilege as follow: “[a] ‘privilege’ describes some
advantage to an individual or group of individuals, a right enjoyed by a few
as opposed to a right enjoyed by all” [emphasis added]. This definition is
supported by the Oxford English Dictionary: “a special right, advantage,
or immunity granted or available only to a particular person or group.”
[42]
The
Ontario Court of Appeal defined “right” at paragraph 19 of Health Network v
Ontario (Minister of Finance), 2001 OJ No 4485 (ONCA):
[19] A tax exemption is a right. A
convenient definition of "right" is found in Black's Law Dictionary,
6th ed. (St. Paul, Minn.: West Publishing, 1990) at p. 1324:
·
a power,
privilege, faculty, or demand, inherent in one person and incident upon another
...
·
a power,
privilege, or immunity guaranteed under a constitution, statutes or decisional
laws, or claimed as a result of long usage ...
The French expression “droit
subjectif” meaning “right” as opposed to droit objectif “law” is similarly
defined:
DROIT SUBJECTIF [(Right)] Prérogative
reconnue à une personne par le droit objectif, dont celle-ci peut se prévaloir
pour faire, exiger ou interdire quelque chose dans son propre intérêt ou,
parfois, dans l’intérêt d’autrui.
(Hubert Reid, Dictionnaire de
droit québécois et canadien, 4e éd. (Montréal : Éditions
Wilson & Lafleur, 2010) at p.221)
[43]
In
my view, the definition of privilege reveals that the difference between a
privilege and a right is simply that the former is either uncommon or acquired
through a specific process or action, such as applying for parole. This is
probably the reason why s.43 of the Interpretation Act and the common
law protect both accruing rights and privileges.
[44]
Parole
is a discretionary grant of remission from incarceration and therefore a
privilege. It is less clear whether the ability to have one’s case reviewed by
the Parole Board qualifies as a privilege or a right. In this matter, I
consider it unnecessary to determine if Mr. Pearce has an accrued right or
privilege for the purposes of this application.
[45]
The
Supreme
Court identified criteria that serve as guide to determine the existence of an
accrued right or privilege in Dikranian v Quebec (Attorney General), 2005 SCC 73 at
paragraphs 39-40.
These criteria are: (1) the individual’s legal situation must be tangible and
concrete rather than general and abstract; and (2) this legal situation must
have been sufficiently constituted at the time of the new statute’s
commencement.
[46]
The
Federal Court of Appeal stated in Hutchins v Canada (National Parole Board),
[1993] FCJ No 679 (FCA) that:
[14] There is consensus among the
authorities on the need to satisfy statutory conditions precedent to the
existence of a right before claiming it. After reviewing a number of cases
dealing with the notion of "accruing rights", Cameron J.A. wrote in
Scott v. College of Physicians and Surgeons:
"In
each of these cases "rights", as such, had become specific to the
person claiming them, and the events or conditions specified in the repealed
statute had occurred or been met before repeal. And so in each, the person
asserting the right was held to have had an "acquired" or
"accrued right" as of the day of repeal."
[47]
The
applicant was eligible for early parole under the repealed provisions, and was personally
entitled to have his application considered by the Board. He
had received a positive recommendation from CSC. Finally, CSC had submitted his
application before the date of the repeal. A decision from the Board was the
last step required. The applicant meets the Dikranian criteria. I thus find
the applicant had an accruing right or privilege under common law and s.43 of
the Interpretation Act to have his parole application reviewed by the
Board under the repealed accelerated parole provisions.
[48]
The
question remaining is whether the doctrine of vested rights is applicable to
this case considering the transitional provisions of the AEPA. In Dikranian, above,
Justice Bastarache stated
at paragraphs 36-40 that:
[36]
... As Professor Sullivan says, care must be taken not to get caught up in the
last vestiges of the literal approach to interpreting legislation:
In
so far as this language echoes the plain meaning rule, it is misleading. The
values embodied in the presumption against interfering with vested rights,
namely avoiding unfairness and observing the rule of law, inform interpretation
in every case, not just those in which the court purports to find ambiguity.
The first effort of the court must be to determine what the legislature
intended, and . . . for this purpose it must rely on all the principles of
statutory interpretation, including the presumptions. [p. 576]
Since
the adoption of the modern approach to statutory interpretation, this Court has
stated time and time again that the “entire context” of a provision must be
considered to determine if the provision is reasonably capable of multiple
interpretations (see, for example, Bell ExpressVu Limited Partnership v. Rex,
[2002] 2 S.C.R. 559, 2002 SCC 42, at para. 29).
[emphasis
added]
[49]
Professor
Sullivan notes that there is a strong presumption against the interference of
repeals with vested rights or privileges. This presumption can only be rebutted
by clear statutory language. When a statute is subject to multiple possible
interpretations, the interpretation preserving the accruing right must be
preferred. (See Ruth Sullivan, Sullivan on the Construction of Statutes,
5th ed (Markham (ON): LexisNexis, 2008) at p.711-712 and 719-721).
[50]
Sections
5 and 10 of the AEPA read together indicate that the early parole provisions are
abolished; the amended CCRA applies to everyone; and the directions made before
the repeal remain valid. The AEPA does not directly address the situation of
Mr. Pearce. Following the reasoning of the Supreme Court in Dikranian,
above, and s.43 of the Interpretation Act, the AEPA must be interpreted,
considering the absence of clear statutory language regarding accruing rights
or privileges, as preserving the accrued right or privilege of Mr. Pearce in
order to avoid unfairness.
[51]
I
believe it is important to note that my conclusion does not give the applicant
the right to obtain parole, but rather requires that his case be reviewed under
the repealed provisions. Offenders who were eligible for early parole before
the entry into force of the AEPA but for whom CSC did not submit all the
required documents to the Board could not avail themselves of the above
mentioned privilege or right.
4. Did the Board breach its duty of
procedural fairness to the applicant?
[52]
The
applicant submits that the Appeal Division and the Board breached their duty of
procedural fairness as set out in Mooring v Canada (National Parole Board),
[1996] 1 S.C.R. 75 at paras 34-35. Specifically, the applicant alleges that he had
a legitimate expectation to have his case reviewed by the Board on March 25,
2011.
[53]
The
factors to consider when determining the existence of a legitimate expectation are
discussed in Canada (Attorney General) v Mavi, 2011 SCC 30. At
paragraph 68 Justice Binnie stated:
Where
a government official makes representations within the scope of his or her
authority to an individual about an administrative process that the government
will follow, and the representations said to give rise to the legitimate
expectations are clear, unambiguous and unqualified, the government may be held
to its word, provided the representations are procedural in nature and do not
conflict with the decision maker’s statutory duty. Proof of reliance is not a
requisite. See Mount Sinai Hospital Center, at paras. 29-30; Moreau-Bérubé
v. New Brunswick (Judicial Council), 2002 SCC 11, [2002] 1 S.C.R.
249, at para. 78; and C.U.P.E. v. Ontario (Minister of Labour),
2003 SCC 29, [2003] 1 S.C.R. 539, at para. 131. It will be a breach of the duty
of fairness for the decision maker to fail in a substantial way to live up to
its undertaking: Brown and Evans, at pp. 7-25 and 7-26.
[54]
In
this instance, the applicant alleges that the Board had informed CSC staff, who
in turn informed the applicant, that they were aware of the coming into force
of the AEPA and that the applicant’s case had to be “voted on” on March 25,
2011. In those circumstances, he contends, the failure of the Board to make its
decision on March 25, 2011 constituted a breach of procedural fairness. In
essence, he contends that he had a legitimate expectation that the decision
would be made on that date based on an undertaking by the Board that it failed
to live up to.
[55]
Although
it appears that the applicant was led to believe that a decision would be made
on March 25, 2011, the Board made no representations directly to him. The
language in the email sent to the CSC staff member is not sufficiently clear,
unambiguous and unqualified to constitute an undertaking by the Board to the
applicant that his case would be reviewed on March 25, 2011. It conveys
information about the looming deadline but offers no assurance that the Board
would deal with the matter on that date. Accordingly, I am unable to conclude
that there was a breach of procedural fairness by the Board and the Appeal
Division.
COSTS:
[56]
The
parties are agreed that costs in this matter should be fixed at $2500.
JUDGMENT
THIS
COURT’S JUDGMENT is that:
1. the
application for judicial review is granted;
2. the
application for accelerated parole is remitted to the Appeal Division of the
Parole Board of Canada for reconsideration; and
3. the
applicant is awarded costs fixed in the amount of $2500.
“Richard
G. Mosley”