Date:
20130125
Docket: IMM-1574-11
IMM-1575-11
Citation:
2013 FC 80
Ottawa, Ontario,
January 25, 2013
PRESENT: The
Honourable Mr. Justice Rennie
BETWEEN:
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IMM-1574-11
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JEYAKUMARAN
MUNEESWARAKUMAR
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Applicant
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and
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THE MINISTER OF
CITIZENSHIP AND IMMIGRATION
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Respondent
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AND
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IMM-1575-11
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JEYAKUMARAN
MUNEESWARAKUMAR
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Applicant
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and
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THE MINISTER OF
CITIZENSHIP AND IMMIGRATION
and
MINISTER OF PUBLIC
SAFETY AND EMERGENCY PREPAREDNESS
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Respondents
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REASONS FOR JUDGMENT
AND JUDGMENT
[1]
The
applicant seeks to set aside a decision of a Minister’s Delegate under
paragraph 115(2)(b) of the Immigration and Refugee Protection Act, SC
2001, c 27 (IRPA) that the applicant has committed acts the nature and
severity of which are such that he should not be allowed to remain in Canada.
The effect of this decision is that the applicant would be deported to Sri Lanka despite his status as a refugee in Canada.
[2]
The
applicant also seeks judicial review of a decision to deny his application
under section 25 of the IRPA for permanent resident status on
humanitarian and compassionate (H&C) grounds.
[3]
For
the reasons that follow the applications are dismissed.
Background
[4]
The
applicant is Tamil and a citizen of Sri Lanka. He arrived in Canada with his father in 1992 when he was 12 years old. He was granted refugee protection
in 1993 and permanent resident status in 1995.
[5]
In
October of 2002, the applicant was found inadmissible to Canada on the basis of organized criminality under paragraph 37(1)(a) of the IRPA. The
Immigration Division of the Immigration and Refugee Board found that the
applicant was a member of an organization known as the Gilder Boys, which was
in turn associated with another gang, the VVT. This Court dismissed an
application for leave and judicial review of that decision.
[6]
On
September 26, 2006, a Minister’s Delegate rendered an opinion under section 115
of the IRPA. The Delegate determined that the applicant should not be
allowed to remain in Canada pursuant to paragraph 115(2)(b) of the IRPA
because he had committed serious, violent crimes as part of a criminal
organization.
[7]
The
applicant was scheduled to be removed from Canada on December 2, 2008. His
request for a deferral was denied. He applied for leave and judicial review of
that decision and sought a judicial stay of his removal. The applicant
thereafter reached an agreement with Citizenship and Immigration Canada (CIC)
and the Canadian Border Services Agency (CBSA) and discontinued the Federal
Court applications.
[8]
On
January 29, 2008, the applicant requested that the Delegate’s opinion be
reconsidered in light of the changed country conditions and new evidence of his
rehabilitation. He also made an H&C application for permanent residence.
The Delegate considered both applications concurrently, and on February 2,
2011, issue one set of reasons denying each of them.
The Section 115 Opinion
[9]
The
Delegate noted that the prior section 115 opinion had been made without the
benefit of the Federal Court of Appeal’s decision in Nagalingam v Canada
(Minister of Citizenship and Immigration), 2008 FCA 153. The
Delegate reviewed the applicable law as set out in that decision, observing
that the standard of proof was low and it was sufficient that there be reasonable
grounds to believe that he had committed the acts in question. Additionally,
the Delegate noted that the relevant actions are those the applicant committed
personally or through complicity, as defined in Canadian criminal law.
Complicity includes aiding or abetting and other criminal conduct such as
conspiracy.
[10]
The
Delegate gave the following reasons for her decision that the applicant’s past
acts were substantially grave:
(1)
The
applicant was convicted in 1999 for assault with a weapon, a metal rod. The
attack was motivated by gang control over territory. The applicant and a
co-accused stated that the altercation was over a woman. However, the Delegate
gave greater weight to the police report because it included evidence given
contemporaneously by a third party.
(2)
In
2000, the applicant was convicted of breaking and entering.
(3)
There
were reasonable grounds to believe that the applicant was a member of the
Gilder Boys and associated with the VVT gang. There were also reasonable
grounds to believe that the applicant was close to the leader of the VVT gang,
a man named Kailesh.
(4)
VVT
is a Tamil gang with links to the Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (LTTE).
Sub-gangs, such as Gilder Boys, are less focused on politics and more focussed
on criminal enterprises.
(5)
There
were reasonable grounds to believe that the applicant was complicit in the
commission of a homicide in 1997, having transported guns to the scene of the
crime. This incident was “a concerted effort by a group of individuals to
assassinate, in cold blood, a group of other individuals.” One person died and
two others sustained bullet wounds. During police interviews, one alleged
participant stated that the applicant transported the weapons to the scene of
the crime after being instructed to do so by Kailesh. A polygraph examination
indicated that the applicant was deceitful in his denial of this assertion.
The applicant’s explanation to the police also contradicted other evidence.
(6)
The
Delegate was satisfied on reasonable grounds that the applicant aided in the
commission of the homicide by transporting weapons to the shooters.
(7)
The
applicant’s past acts as a member of the VVT and Guilder Boys gangs, in
particular his participation in the homicide, were of substantial gravity.
[11]
The
applicant submitted that new conditions put him at risk of persecution by the
Sri Lankan government; in particular he cited his status as a young Tamil male
with no identification card and as a criminal deportee from Canada with alleged
links to the LTTE. However, the Delegate determined that the applicant was not
at risk if returned to Sri Lanka, for the following reasons:
(1)
The
applicant had been granted refugee status because the LTTE were conscripting
Tamil children into the civil war. Given the passage of time and change in
country conditions, this risk no longer existed.
(2)
The
documentary evidence did not indicate that lack of an identification card or
being a Tamil from the North were, at present, risk factors.
(3)
The
evidence indicated that being suspected of having links to the LTTE is a risk
factor, and the applicant pointed to the examples of Tamil men who claim they
were mistreated by Sri Lankan authorities after being removed from Canada. The
Delegate determined that the applicant’s circumstances were substantially
different. He did not have a prominent position in the VVT and his case did
not receive media attention.
(4)
It
was speculative to argue that CBSA would inform Sri Lankan authorities of the
applicant’s criminality. Furthermore, there was no direct link between the
applicant himself and the LTTE. Even if there was a link, the documentary
evidence showed that many who were affiliated with the LTTE had been released
from custody and that low-level supporters were not generally of interest to
authorities.
The H&C Decision
[12]
The
Delegate determined that the nature and severity of the applicant’s acts
outweighed the H&C considerations. The Delegate provided the following
reasons for refusing the applicant’s H&C application:
(1)
The
applicant had lived in Canada since he was 12. He did not complete secondary
school and has a varied employment history.
(2)
The
applicant claimed to be a breadwinner for his immediate and extended family.
However, there was no evidence as to his employment situation since 2008 when
he stopped working as a mortgage agent because of pending fraud charges.
(3)
His
sources of income were suspect, given his relatively low annual salary when
compared to his stated financial obligations and lifestyle. He did not provide
tax returns.
(4)
Though
he was never convicted of fraud, evidence of criminal charges “cast[s] a
shadow” on whether all of his income has been lawful.
(5)
It
was not clear how successful his business endeavours had been.
(6)
Several
factors weighed in his favour: his volunteer activities, a wide network of
supportive friends and the length of time he has spent in Canada. The applicant had family in Canada and the interests of his two children also
weighed in his favour. Separation from his family would cause hardship and
emotional upset.
(7)
However,
the applicant and his wife married after he had been issued a deportation
order. Additionally, the couple had had numerous disputes involving the
police, including allegations of assault and infidelity.
(8)
While
the applicant would have a period of adjustment in Sri Lanka, the country
situation had improved.
Issues
[13]
The
standard of review is reasonableness for both the Delegate’s section 115
opinion and the H&C decision. Procedural fairness is reviewed on a
standard of correctness: Suresh v Canada (Minister of Citizenship and
Immigration), 2002 SCC 1; Dunsmuir
v New Brunswick, 2008 SCC 9; Nagalingam v Canada (Minister of Citizenship and
Immigration), 2008 FCA 153.
Analysis
Procedural
Fairness
[14]
The
applicant states that he was not given adequate notice that the Delegate would
rely on evidence of his participation in the homicide and double shooting.
CBSA did not specifically reference that allegation in its submissions to the
Minister.
[15]
On
March 19, 2009, CBSA disclosed 1548 pages of documents to the applicant,
inviting his response. Contained within this disclosure package was the
documentation relating to the homicide, including the police reports. The
disclosure package also listed the Minister’s decision of September 26, 2006.
The 2006 Ministerial opinion is founded, in part, on the applicant’s
participation in the homicide and double shooting.
[16]
This
disclosure satisfies the requirements of procedural fairness. It is axiomatic
that any information on which the decision maker relies must be provided to the
applicant: Suresh. There is no authority for the proposition that
disclosure also requires that the specific conduct, which the Delegate might
find particularly pertinent or compelling, be distilled or that crucial facts
be identified or emphasized. Procedural fairness requires disclosure; it does
not require that the disclosure be triaged to identify evidence which may be of
particular relevance to the decision maker. In the circumstances of this case,
I find that the applicant did have adequate notice of the evidence against him
and the case he had to meet.
A Section 115 Opinion – Basic
Principles
[17]
Subsection
115(1) of the IRPA reflects the principle of international law of non-refoulement, and is
derived from Article 33 of the United Nations Convention Relating to the
Status of Refugees. Simply put, Convention refugees may not be removed
from Canada to a country where they would be at risk of persecution, torture or
cruel and unusual treatment or punishment. Paragraphs 115(2) (a) and (b) contain
an exception to this general rule. A refugee may be removed to their country
of origin if they are inadmissible to Canada on the basis of serious organized
criminality or if, in the Minister’s opinion, the person should not be allowed
to remain in Canada because of the nature and severity of their acts. They
read:
115. (2) Subsection (1) does
not apply in the case of a person
(a) who is inadmissible on
grounds of serious criminality and who constitutes, in the opinion of the
Minister, a danger to the public in Canada; or
(b) who is inadmissible on
grounds of security, violating human or international rights or organized
criminality if, in the opinion of the Minister, the person should not be
allowed to remain in Canada on the basis of the nature and severity of acts
committed or of danger to the security of Canada.
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115. (2) Le paragraphe (1) ne
s’applique pas à l’interdit de territoire :
a) pour grande criminalité qui,
selon le ministre, constitue un danger pour le public au Canada;
b) pour raison de sécurité ou
pour atteinte aux droits humains ou internationaux ou criminalité organisée
si, selon le ministre, il ne devrait pas être présent au Canada en raison
soit de la nature et de la gravité de ses actes passés, soit du danger qu’il
constitue pour la sécurité du Canada.
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[18]
The
“acts committed” which are relevant for a section 115 opinion are those that
the applicant has committed personally, including complicity in acts committed
by criminal organizations and others. The decision maker must apply Canadian
criminal law when considering if an individual was complicit in criminal acts.
This involves consideration of the law of aiding and abetting under section 21
of the Criminal Code, RSC 1985, c C-46 (Criminal Code). However,
the standard of proof is that of reasonable grounds to believe, lower than the
criminal standard of proof beyond a reasonable doubt.
[19]
Section
7 of the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms is integral to the
formulation of an opinion under section 115. It imposes an over-arching
obligation on the Minister to assess, on a balance of probabilities, whether
the individual will face a risk to his life, liberty or security, on
refoulement. The Minister must balance that risk against the nature and
severity of the acts: Nagalingam
v Minister of Citizenship and Immigration,
2008 FCA 153.
Permissible Evidence
[20]
There
is no merit to the applicant’s assertion that the Delegate could not consider
evidence in support of unproven criminal allegations. In making her decision,
the Delegate was entitled to consider any evidence reasonably considered
reliable and trustworthy. This Court has consistently held that evidence in
support of an unproven criminal charge can be used to form a section 115
opinion: Nagalingam v Canada (Minister of Citizenship and Immigration),
2012 FC 176; Alkhalil v Canada (Minister of Citizenship and
Immigration), 2011 FC 976; Sittampalam v Canada (Minister of Citizenship
and Immigration), 2007 FC 687.
[21]
While
the Delegate could not rely on the mere fact of a criminal charge, there is no
error in relying on the underlying evidence surrounding a charge. Justice Anne
Mactavish explained this distinction in Thuraisingam v Canada (Minister of Citizenship and Immigration), 2004 FC 607 at paragraph 35:
In my view, a distinction
must be drawn between reliance on the fact that someone has been charged
with a criminal offense, and reliance on the evidence that underlies the
charges in question. The fact that someone has been charged with an offense
proves nothing: it is simply an allegation. In contrast, the evidence
underlying the charge may indeed be sufficient to provide the foundation for a
good-faith opinion that an individual poses a present or future danger to
others in Canada.
[Emphasis in original]
[22]
This
explanation was endorsed by the Federal Court of Appeal in Sittampalam v Canada (Minister of Citizenship and Immigration), 2006 FCA 326 at paragraph 50.
The law on this point is thus firmly settled. If the Delegate was limited to
considering only allegations which resulted in a criminal conviction, the
standard of proof would be elevated to that of beyond a reasonable doubt.
Evidence that is insufficient to prove the applicant’s guilt on a criminal
standard may still be sufficient to meet the lower threshold of reasonable
grounds to believe.
[23]
In
this case, there was sufficient evidence in the police reports for the Delegate
to conclude that the applicant was complicit in the commission of a homicide.
In particular, the Delegate relied on the police homicide investigation report
and the interviews of witnesses contained therein.
[24]
The
Delegate was also permitted to consider polygraph evidence: Maire v Canada (Minister of Citizenship and Immigration), [1999] FCJ No 1185. She found that
the polygraph results supported the other evidence in the police reports, in
particular the various interviews.
[25]
Polygraph
results are inadmissible in a criminal trial, but this is not, as the applicant
submits, because of concerns as to the reliability of the results; rather
polygraph evidence has been rejected as it would run counter to long
established evidentiary rules on oath-helping, prior inconsistent statements,
character evidence and expert evidence. Most significantly, polygraph results
could usurp the role of the trier of fact in weighing the credibility of a
witness: R v Béland, [1987] 2 SCR
398.
[26]
These
concerns are not applicable in an administrative law process. Provided the
reasoning satisfied the criteria of transparency, intelligibility and
justification, the Delegate was not bound by the technical rules of evidence.
Importantly, in the specific context of this case, she did not use the
polygraph evidence to determine the applicant’s credibility but rather as an
additional piece of evidence to be weighed. The questions posed on the
polygraph were undoubtedly pertinent, as they were directed to whether the
applicant transported the guns to the scene of the crime.
Section
21 of the Criminal Code
[27]
The
applicant submits that the Delegate erred in the application of the criminal
law in order to establish whether he was a party to or complicit in a criminal
act of such a nature as to warrant removal. The Delegate found the applicant
was complicit in murder, concluding:
… [he] was complicit in a
shooting resulting in a homicide orchestrated by Kailesh in that he transported
guns hidden in a speaker of his car to the scene of the crime.
[28]
The
applicant contends that this finding is insufficient. The Delegate had to
render a determination that there were reasonable grounds to believe that the
elements of section 21 of the Criminal Code and the offence of aiding
and abetting had been established in the evidence. The applicant contends that
intention is required to establish aiding and abetting, and that in order to do
so in the context of a homicide, the accused must know of the principle’s
intention to kill. It is not sufficient that the acts had the effect of aiding
in the commission of the offence. The purpose must be proven. The Delegate
needed to expressly find that the applicant had knowledge of an intention to
kill.
[29]
Section
21 of the Criminal Code provides:
21. (1) Every one is a party to
an offence who
(a) actually commits
it;
(b) does or omits to
do anything for the purpose of aiding any person to commit it; or
(c) abets any person
in committing it.
(2) Where two or more persons
form an intention in common to carry out an unlawful purpose and to assist
each other therein and any one of them, in carrying out the common purpose,
commits an offence, each of them who knew or ought to have known that the
commission of the offence would be a probable consequence of carrying out the
common purpose is a party to that offence.
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21. (1) Participent à une
infraction :
a) quiconque la
commet réellement;
b) quiconque accomplit
ou omet d’accomplir quelque chose en vue d’aider quelqu’un à la commettre;
c) quiconque
encourage quelqu’un à la commettre.
(2)
Quand deux ou plusieurs personnes forment ensemble le projet de poursuivre
une fin illégale et de s’y entraider et que l’une d’entre elles commet une
infraction en réalisant cette fin commune, chacune d’elles qui savait ou
devait savoir que la réalisation de l’intention commune aurait pour
conséquence probable la perpétration de l’infraction, participe à cette
infraction.
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[30]
The
Court of Appeal considered section 21 in Nagalingam, paras 60-61:
Paragraph 21(1)(a) holds
an accused liable for the role as principal if he or she committed that
offence.
Paragraph 21(1)(b) makes
an accused liable as a party for acts or omissions which are done for the
purpose of aiding a principal to commit an offence while paragraph
21(1)(c) makes the accused similarly liable if he or she abetted
the principal.
[Emphasis in original]
[31]
The
Delegate concluded that the applicant “was complicit in a homicide”. There is
no offence of complicity, rather it is a label applied to section 21 which
addresses parties to an offence. A party to the offence of homicide can be
established either through aiding under paragraph 21(1)(b) (in this case transportation
of guns to the scene of the crime) or under subsection 21(2) where it is
sufficient that there is a common intention to carry out an unlawful purpose
and that the applicant knew, or ought to have known, that the commission of the
offence would be a probable consequence of the conduct.
[32]
The
offence of culpable homicide is defined as:
221. Every one who by criminal
negligence causes bodily harm to another person is guilty of an indictable
offence and liable to imprisonment for a term not exceeding ten years.
222. …
(5) A person commits culpable
homicide when he causes the death of a human being,
(a) by means of an
unlawful act;
(b) by criminal
negligence;
(c) by causing that
human being, by threats or fear of violence or by deception, to do anything
that causes his death; or
(d) by wilfully
frightening that human being, in the case of a child or sick person.
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221. Est coupable d’un acte
criminel et passible d’un emprisonnement maximal de dix ans quiconque, par
négligence criminelle, cause des lésions corporelles à autrui.
222. …
(5) Une personne commet un
homicide coupable lorsqu’elle cause la mort d’un être humain :
a) soit au moyen
d’un acte illégal;
b) soit par
négligence criminelle;
c) soit en portant
cet être humain, par des menaces ou la crainte de quelque violence, ou par la
supercherie, à faire quelque chose qui cause sa mort;
d) soit en effrayant
volontairement cet être humain, dans le cas d’un enfant ou d’une personne
malade.
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[33]
The
offence of homicide engages a range of unlawful acts causing death, including
criminal negligence causing death (section 220); murder (section 229), either
in the first or second degree (section 231); murder reduced to manslaughter
(section 232); and manslaughter (section 236).
[34]
In
the case of murder, the person aiding must intend that death ensue or intend
that the perpetrator cause harm that is likely to result in death, or be
reckless as to whether death ensues: R v Kirkness, [1990] 3 S.C.R. 74.
[35]
The
applicant’s position, insofar as murder is concerned, is well-founded: R. v
McIntyre, 2012 ONCA 356; R. v Kirkness, [1990] 3 S.C.R. 74. Here,
however, the Delegate did not predicate the finding on the narrow
classification of the offence of first degree murder. The finding, or
classification, of the act of substantial gravity, was that of homicide, which
as the definition explains, encompasses “causing death by an unlawful act”.
[36]
If
the intent of the aiding party is insufficient to support a conviction for
murder, then the party may still be convicted of manslaughter, where a
reasonable person in all the circumstances would have appreciated that bodily
harm was the foreseeable consequence of the dangerous act which was being
undertaken: Kirkness; R v Q.V.T.M.L., 2003 BCCA
48 at para 49.
[37]
To
require the Delegate to specify the precise nature of the unlawful act as
murder or manslaughter would convert the administrative law hearing into a
pseudo-criminal trial process. Such a process would, by definition, be
unsatisfactory. The Delegate does not have the mechanisms to establish, for
example, that Kailesh intended to murder the victim at the time the applicant
provided the weapons, as would be required if the act of substantial gravity
was particularized as complicity in first degree murder.
[38]
The
Delegate’s findings fall within the scope of what is required to establish, on
a lesser standard of proof, complicity in homicide. Cory J, in Kirkness,
p 88:
In the case of an accused who
aids or abets in the killing of another, the requisite intent that the aider or
abettor must have in order to warrant a conviction for murder must be the same
as that required of the person who actually does the killing. That is to say,
the person aiding or abetting the crime must intend that death ensue or intend
that he or the perpetrator cause bodily harm of a kind likely to result in
death and be reckless whether death ensues or not. If the intent of the aiding
party is insufficient to support a conviction for murder, then that party might
still be convicted of manslaughter if the unlawful act which was aided or
abetted is one he or she knows is likely to cause some harm short of death.
[39]
Therefore,
the case law does not require an intention to kill and knowledge of the
principle’s intention to kill. Intention to cause harm or recklessness as to
the consequences will suffice. Even if the aiding party does not have the same
intention as the accused, to commit murder, it is sufficient if the party knows
that some sort of harm short of death is likely to ensure.
[40]
The
Delegate considered the applicant’s knowledge and intention. She reviewed
police evidence which showed that the homicide had been orchestrated by
Kailesh, the VVT leader. The Delegate concluded:
Finally, and most significantly
the evidence contained in the ID’s reasons provide reasonably grounds to
believe that Mr. M was complicit in a shooting resulting in a homicide
orchestrated by Kailesh in that he transported guns hidden in his car to the
scene of the crime.
[41]
After
extracting relevant portions from the police report, including a synopsis of a
police interview with a participant confirming that he heard Kailesh’s
direction to the applicant to bring the guns, the Delegate concluded “[this
was] a concerted effort by a group of individuals to assassinate, in cold
blood, a group of other individuals."
[42]
This
conclusion and the preceding reasons demonstrate that the Delegate considered
the applicant to have been a knowing participant in the homicide.
[43]
This
conclusion reached by the Delegate was reasonably open to her on the evidence.
[44]
The
applicant’s intention to commit any particular crime is a necessary but
subordinate element of the real question at issue, whether he committed or was
complicit in the commission of acts of substantial gravity. Here, the act was
homicide, which is defined as death by an unlawful act. The unlawful act may
require a party to have knowledge of an intention to kill, but not
necessarily. If this is not established, the unlawful act may be
manslaughter. Indeed, in Nagalingam at paragraphs 77 and 79, the
Federal Court of Appeal stated that the Delegate is not required to make a
specific finding on complicity. It follows that a Delegate need not parse the
underlying criminal offence beyond that of homicide.
[45]
The
applicant’s argument imports into an administrative law procedure, namely the
formulation of an opinion under section 115, the substantive element of
criminal law necessary to sustain a specific criminal conviction. While the
Federal Court of Appeal in Nagalingam
provided that criminal law is applicable to the formulation of a section 115
opinion, it also cautioned that the law must be applied with “circumspection
and caution” in the immigration context. Criminal law principles inform, but
do not control, the Delegate’s analysis of whether the nature and severity of
“the acts committed” warrant the opinion.
[46]
While
the Delegate does not expressly find intention and did not use the language of
“known or ought to have known” she did conclude that it was “a concerted effort
to assassinate” a group of other individuals. This is, in my view, a
sufficient finding of intent insofar as it incorporates the intention of the
applicant and other parties to the offence, namely Kailesh. The dictionary
definition of “concerted” demonstrates that the requisite knowledge and
intention is imbedded in the use of the word “concerted”. The Merriam-Webster
Dictionary (online) defines “concerted” as “mutually contrived or agreed on”.
Similarly, the Canadian Oxford Dictionary (2nd ed. 2004) includes
the definition “combined together; jointly arranged or
planned”.
[47]
The
Delegate applied the correct legal tests in concluding that there were
reasonable grounds to believe that the applicant aided in the commission of a
homicide and reasonably concluded that this action, among others, demonstrated
that the applicant had committed acts of “substantial gravity.” There is no
reviewable error.
Risk in Sri Lanka
[48]
Having
reached this conclusion, the Delegate was required to consider what risk the
applicant might face if removed to Sri Lanka.
[49]
The
applicant submits that the Delegate erroneously concluded that the
circumstances in Sri Lanka had changed such that only high profile members of
the LTTE were presently at risk. The applicant emphasizes evidence which
indicates that anyone suspected of links to the LTTE is in danger. Similarly,
the applicant submits that the Delegate erroneously concluded that he was not a
high profile LTTE member.
[50]
The
Delegate explained that, though the applicant was associated with organizations
with LTTE ties, he himself had no direct connection. There was no evidence
before the Delegate that the applicant ever fundraised for or otherwise
supported the LTTE. As such, her conclusions were rooted in the evidence. In
effect, the applicant is challenging the weight the Delegate assigned to
various pieces of evidence. This is not the function of judicial review.
[51]
Nor
is there merit to the argument that the Delegate ignored evidence. The
Delegate specifically referred to the expert reports provided by Professor
Anthony Good. The Delegate also reviewed the cases of other Tamil men removed
from Canada and explained why she determined that their circumstances were
substantially different. The Delegate explained that, as country conditions
had evolved substantially, evidence from 2008 and 2009 was out of date.
[52]
Finally,
the applicant argues that the Delegate failed to consider whether the changes
in Sri Lanka were effective and durable. The language of an effective and
durable change is not essential to the analysis: Yusuf v Canada (Minister of Employment and Immigration), [1995] FCJ No 35; Fabian
v Canada (Minister of Citizenship and Immigration), 2006 FC 851. The issue
to be decided is whether the applicant is personally at risk, on a balance of probabilities,
on the basis of the existing evidence. This includes an analysis of the nature
of the changes. Put otherwise, effectiveness and durability is embedded in the
risk analysis. To require the Delegate to foresee how far the changes will prevail
in the future would entail an inappropriately speculative soothsaying
exercise. The risk must be assessed in real time, based on known facts. Here,
the Delegate considered the evidence relating to risk and came to a reasonable
conclusion as to the prospective risk.
The H&C Decision
[53]
The
applicant applied for an H&C exemption from the finding that he was
inadmissible on the basis of his criminality. For this application to succeed,
the applicant was required to demonstrate that the hardship of his removal
would be undue, undeserved or disproportionate.
[54]
This
does not involve reconsideration of the applicant’s right to life, liberty and
security of the person, as provided for in Suresh. The Delegate had
already given careful consideration to the issue of risk in the section 115
opinion. Rather, the H&C application was an opportunity for the Delegate
to consider additional factors such as the applicant’s establishment in Canada and the best interests of his children.
[55]
The
applicant submits that the Delegate exceeded her jurisdiction in deciding his
H&C application. He argues that an H&C decision is a two step
process. First, a front line officer reviews the application and decides
whether it should be approved in principle. Second, the Delegate can decide
whether there should be an exemption from the inadmissibility finding under
paragraph 37(1)(a).
[56]
The
CIC Manual sets out that the local office should forward the case to the
Director of Case Review at the National Headquarters of CIC if H&C factors
might justify an exemption. If the Director determines that there are
insufficient H&C grounds to justify an exemption, the Director may render a
negative decision.
[57]
That
is precisely what happened in this case. The applicant’s file was processed at
the CIC office in Scarborough, Ontario. It was then forwarded to the National
Headquarters where the Delegate, also the Director of Case Review, decided that
an exemption from the inadmissibility finding was not justified. No divergence
from the CIC Policy manual has been established. In any event, internal
administration processing decisions do not give rise, in the absence of proof
of a legitimate expectation or lost opportunity to be heard, to procedural
fairness concerns.
[58]
The
Delegate explicitly considered that the applicant arrived in Canada as a refugee, a circumstance that was beyond his control. She found that the length
of time that the applicant lived in Canada weighed in favour of accepting his
application.
[59]
As
explained above, it was permissible for the Delegate to consider evidence
underlying criminal allegations that did not result in convictions.
[60]
In
one instance, the Delegate considered the mere fact that the applicant had
faced criminal charges for fraud involving false mortgage applications. For
this allegation, the Delegate did not consider the underlying evidence, only
the charge, in and of itself. This was improper. However, I am not convinced
that this error had any impact on the decision. The fraud allegations were
relatively minor in light of the other criminal conduct at issue.
[61]
The
Delegate was concerned about whether the applicant’s stated income could
actually support his lifestyle and financial obligations. The applicant did
not submit evidence of his employment since 2008 and did not submit any tax
returns. Though the Delegate considered the fraud allegations, she also
emphasized other evidence which called his income into question.
[62]
The
Delegate found that family unity and the best interests of the applicant’s
children weighed in favour of an H&C exemption. The Delegate found that
the distance between Canada and Sri Lanka would cause hardship. It was open to
the Delegate to also consider that a two parent household is desirable, but not
essential and that with modern communication methods the applicant could stay
in contact with his children. The Delegate carefully reviewed the best
interests of the applicant’s children. Her findings are reasonable and
supported by the evidence.
[63]
Furthermore,
family conflict is a relevant consideration. It was undisputed that the police
had been called to the applicant’s home because of conflict between the
applicant and his wife. There was no error in considering this fact. The
Delegate did not rely on this evidence as proof of criminality, but as evidence
to be put on to the scales in assessing the applicant’s claim that removal
would cause undue hardship to his wife and children.
[64]
In
sum, given the broad discretion accorded to H&C decisions, the decision
reached was reasonably open to the Delegate on the evidence before her. No
reviewable error has been identified in the methodology, the identification of
relevant criteria, or in the assessment of the evidence.
Certified Questions
[65]
The
applicant proposes three questions for certification:
(1)
Does
the Minister’s Delegate breach principles of procedural fairness or natural
justice by relying on evidence in the decision which was not put forward by
CBSA as part of the case the applicant had to meet, without first notifying the
applicant of the issue?
(2)
Does
the Minister’s Delegate err in law in relying on evidence of criminal conduct
which did not lead to a conviction for the alleged conduct to determine
reasonable grounds to believe that the applicant had committed a criminal
offence or been complicit in a criminal offence?
(3)
In
applying section 21 of the Criminal Code to a finding of reasonable
grounds to believe complicity in murder, is the Minister’s Delegate required to
determine all requisite elements of the offence, including intention?
[66]
I
note that these proposed questions relate to the judicial review of the section
115 opinion only, not the H&C application.
[67]
The
test for certification is whether there is a serious question of general
importance which would be dispositive of an appeal: Zazai v Canada (Minister of Citizenship and Immigration), 2004 FCA 89 at para 11. The three proposed
questions do not satisfy that test.
[68]
The
first proposed question does not transcend the interests of the immediate
parties. Whether an applicant has been given adequate disclosure is highly
specific to the facts of each case. As the Federal Court of Appeal explained
in Kunkul v Canada (Minister of Citizenship and Immigration, 2009
FCA 347 at paragraph 11, “What is fair and reasonable in one instance may not
be in another.” In any event, on the evidence and the facts as found, there
was disclosure of the documents.
[69]
The
second proposed question is not a serious question of general importance
because the law on that issue is settled. There is no real debate as to
whether evidence underlying a criminal charge as opposed to the charge itself
can be considered in these circumstances: Thuraisingam.
[70]
With
respect to the third question, Nagalingam informs that when applying paragraph 115(2)(b) there must be
reasonable grounds to believe that the person committed, personally, the act,
or was complicit in its commission and hence became a party to the offence.
One of the requirements of section 21 of the Criminal Code is intention, although the object of mens rea varies with the crime. As noted, the offence of homicide
spans between a specific deliberate intention to kill to the reduced mens rea requirements for manslaughter. No real question arises
from the facts of this case as the Delegate made the requisite findings of
fact, including intent, under section 21 to reach the conclusion that the
applicant was complicit in a homicide.
JUDGMENT
THIS
COURT’S JUDGMENT is that the applications for judicial review
are dismissed. There is no question for certification.
"Donald J.
Rennie"