Date: 20070606
Docket: T-1015-05
Citation: 2007
FC 597
Ottawa, Ontario, June 6, 2007
PRESENT: The Honourable Mr. Justice Blais
BETWEEN:
TIMOTHY
C. HAMM
Plaintiff
and
HER
MAJESTY THE QUEEN
Defendant
REASONS FOR ORDER AND ORDER
[1]
These are
two separate motions for summary judgment brought by the plaintiff in the
action, Timothy C. Hamm (the plaintiff), pursuant to rule 213 (1) of the Federal
Courts Rules, SOR/98-106, and by the defendant in the action, Her Majesty
the Queen in Right of Canada (the defendant), pursuant to rule 213 (2) of the Federal
Courts Rules. Alternatively, each party seeks to have portions of the other
party’s pleadings struck out, as per rule 221 of the Federal Courts Rules.
BACKGROUND
[2]
The plaintiff was enrolled as a member of the Military
Police (MP) branch of the Canadian Forces (CF) from 1990 until his official release
on May 18, 2005. However, for the last three of those years, the plaintiff was
continuously on stress leave.
[3]
This action by the plaintiff arises out of the harm
allegedly suffered as a result of his arrest and detention on December 12, 2000,
while on medical leave for stress-related reasons. Specifically, the plaintiff
alleges that he suffered subsequent damage to his career opportunities, as well
as adverse effects on his mental health.
[4]
On December 12, 2000, at approximately 10 a.m., the
plaintiff received a phone call from his immediate superior, Sergeant Rice,
informing him that he was to begin preparation for deployment to Inuvik on December 26, 2000. The exact tone and content of that
conversation is subject to debate. The plaintiff alleges that he told Sgt Rice
that he was on sick leave, that the conversation became heated, and that Sgt
Rice then informed him that if ordered to go on deployment he would have to
comply or be jailed. The plaintiff then alleges that Sgt Rice used profanities
and that he hung up the phone in response. The defendant for his part alleges
that during the telephone conversation, the plaintiff was disrespectful and
rude to Sgt Rice and ultimately refused to go, or in the alternative, refused
to acknowledge his obligation to go on this deployment and hung up the phone on
his superior officer. The defendant maintains that, while Sgt Rice was aware
that the plaintiff was on sick leave, he was not aware of the reason for it,
and that at no time during the conversation did the plaintiff reveal the nature
of the illness or state any medical reason that might preclude his deployment
to Inuvik.
[5]
Shortly thereafter, two of the plaintiff’s MP colleagues
were sent to his house with instructions to convey to the plaintiff an order to
report to Sgt Rice for administrative or disciplinary actions, and to arrest
him should he refuse. The plaintiff told them that he was on medical leave and
did not have to go to work, as did his doctor whom the plaintiff called. The
plaintiff was then placed under arrest and brought to the guardhouse. The
plaintiff maintains that he was never informed of the reason for his arrest. Once
there, he was brought to Sgt Rice’s office, where the defendant alleges that he
continued to display insubordination and, ultimately, refused a direct order to
stand at attention, thereby committing further service offences. He was kept
there until 1 p.m., at which point he was informed that he was “unarrested” by
Chief Warrant Officer Gauvin. Upon learning that the plaintiff’s medical leave
was stress related, Sgt Rice apologized to the plaintiff for his actions in a
meeting at the office of CWO Gauvin.
[6]
Following a complaint by Warrant Officer Hamm, the
plaintiff’s brother, to the Deputy Provost Marshall Professional Standards (DPM
PS), the Canadian Forces National Investigation Services (CFNIS) commenced an
investigation on December 19, 2000, to determine whether the circumstances
described in the complaint disclosed the commission of criminal or service
offences by members of the MP. The DPM PS investigation was held in abeyance to
await the completion of the CFNIS investigation.
[7]
On July 8, 2001, the CFNIS found that there was no evidence
to support the allegations of witness tampering directed against CWO Gauvin and
the two MPs who arrested the plaintiff. However, the CFNIS found that Sgt Rice
should be charged with one count of Neglect to the Prejudice of Good Order and
Discipline, contrary to paragraph 129(2)(b) of the National Defence Act,
R.S.C.
1985, c. N-5, for breaching the Regulations by failing to ensure that
the plaintiff’s commanding officer directed his recall to duty on December 12,
2000. Sgt Rice was subsequently charged and had his credentials suspended for
10 months.
[8]
On February 21, 2002, the investigation report of the DPM
PS concluded that the evidence supported none of the allegations against the
named subject members (Sgt Rice, CWO Gauvin, MCpl Paul and Cpl Murray) but was
critical of WO Hamm and highly critical of the plaintiff. The DPM PS concluded
that the plaintiff had breached paragraphs 4(h) and 4(l) of the Military
Police Professional Code of Conduct, by supplying his brother with
misleading information used as a basis for his lodging the complaints.
[9]
On April 15, 2002, the DPM PS directed the suspension of
the plaintiff’s MP service credentials.
[10]
On April 30, 2002, WO Hamm asked the Military Police
Complaints Commission (MPCC) to review the DPM PS investigation and the CFNIS
investigation. On May 15, 2002, the plaintiff also lodged a complaint with the
MPCC, regarding his arrest on December 12, 2000, the DPM PS investigation, and the
subsequent actions taken against him by the DPM PS. On December 30, 2002, the Chairperson
of the MPCC elected to proceed by way of a public interest investigation and to
prepare a report without holding a formal hearing.
[11]
On October 1, 2002, the Department of Veterans Affairs
awarded a military disability pension to the plaintiff pursuant to subsection
39(1) of the Pension Act, R.S.C. 1985, c. P-6,
assessed at 40% disability. The basis for this pension
award was the plaintiff’s claim of post traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), based
in part on allegations that he had been subject to harassment and mistreatment
in the workplace. The award was made retroactive to July 12, 2002.
[12]
On November 27, 2002, the Directorate of Military Careers
at National Defence Headquarters authorized the promotion of the plaintiff to
the rank of Master Corporal, but it was decided that the promotion would be
held in abeyance until the suspension of the plaintiff’s MP credentials was
resolved. The plaintiff was not informed of the promotion and learned of it for
the first time on or about January 27, 2005, while going through material
disclosed as a result of a request under the Access to Information Act, R.S.C. 1985, c. A-1.
[13]
On September 16, 2003, a pension adjudicator with the
Department of Veterans Affairs confirmed the pension award. Thereafter, the
plaintiff submitted further evidence seeking an increase in his disability
pension on the basis that his disability was more severe than was originally
indicated. On January 29, 2004, the plaintiff’s application was allowed, the
pension was reassessed at 70% of disability, and the award was made retroactive
to July 2002. In addition, the plaintiff was later awarded a further Special
Award (i.e. an attendance allowance) in conjunction with his overall disability
pension.
[14]
On October 20, 2003, the MPCC released its interim report
in which it concluded that the plaintiff’s arrest was unnecessary and neither
reasonable nor proportional to the violations allegedly committed by the
plaintiff. The MPCC also concluded that the evidence did not support a finding
that the plaintiff misled WO Hamm or violated the Military Police
Professional Code of Conduct.
[15]
The interim report of the MPCC was submitted to the Provost
Marshall, Colonel D.A. Cooper, who rejected the majority of the recommendations
and provided reasons therefore. In his Notice of Action dated February 13,
2004, the Provost Marshall insisted that the matter was beyond the jurisdiction
of the MPCC because the arrest of the plaintiff was part of an administrative
procedure related to discipline within the military unit and that the MPs were
not performing a policing duty or function.
[16]
The MPCC final report was released on July 14, 2004, and
contained 45 findings and 10 recommendations, which essentially exonerated the
plaintiff.
[17]
On October 18, 2004, the Military Police Credentials Review
Board (MPCRB) convened and determined that there was insufficient evidence to
establish, on a balance of probabilities, that the plaintiff knowingly
suppressed, misrepresented or falsified information in a report or statement,
or engaged in conduct that is likely to discredit the Military Police or calls
into question his ability to carry out his duties in a faithful and impartial
manner. Therefore, the members recommended that the plaintiff’s MP credentials be
reinstated, a recommendation which was accepted by the Provost Marshall in a
letter dated October 21, 2004.
[18]
The plaintiff notes that he has yet to be formally promoted
or receive the salary and benefit associated with the promotion held in
abeyance. However, as was already noted, the plaintiff was officially released
from the CF on May 18, 2005.
[19]
In addition to the complaints referred to the MPCC and the
MPCRB, the plaintiff also filed five separate grievances under section 29 of
the National Defence Act, between December 2000 and February 16, 2005.
The first four grievances flowed directly from the December 12, 2000 incident,
while the latest grievance, which has yet to be resolved and was stayed pending
the outcome of this action, relates to the abandonment of his promotion.
[20]
The plaintiff filed a statement of claim in the Federal
Court on June 10, 2005 in which he seeks damages in the amount of $725,000.00
against the defendant, on the following grounds:
§
Under section 3 of the Crown Liability and Proceedings
Act, R.S.C. 1985, c. C-50, on
the basis of negligence by employees, servants and agents of the defendant in
their exercise of powers of arrest and detention with respect to the plaintiff;
§
For breach of the plaintiff’s right to life, liberty and
security of the person as guaranteed by section 7 of the Canadian Charter of
Rights and Freedoms, Part I of the Constitution Act, 1982,
being Schedule B to the Canada Act 1982 (U.K.), 1982, c. 11 (the Charter);
§
For breach of the plaintiff’s right not to be arbitrarily
detained or imprisoned, as guaranteed by section 9 of the Charter;
§
For breach of the plaintiff’s right, on arrest or
detention, to be informed promptly of the reasons therefore, as guaranteed by paragraph
10(a) of the Charter;
§
For general, punitive and exemplary damages including, but
not limited to, damages, pursuant to subsection 24(1) of the Charter;
§
For pre-judgment and post-judgment interests thereon in
accordance with sections 36 and 37 of the Federal Courts Act, R.S.C.
1985, c. F-7;
§
Costs of this action.
[21]
On April 4, 2007, the defendant filed a notice of motion
for an order pursuant to rules 213, 216 and 221 of the Federal Courts Rules.
[22]
On April 5, 2007, the plaintiff also filed a notice of
motion for an order pursuant to rules 213, 216 and 221 of the Federal Courts
Rules.
ISSUES FOR
CONSIDERATION
[23]
The first issue to be considered by this Court will be
whether the defendant’s motion should be granted. In doing so, this Court will
answer the following questions:
1)
Should the Court exercise its discretion to strike all or
portions of the plaintiff’s Statement of Claim as being beyond, or otherwise
not appropriate for the exercise of, jurisdiction over the subject matter of
the claim?
2)
Should the Court strike out the plaintiff’s negligence
claim for being statute-barred, pursuant to section 9 of the Crown Liability
and Proceedings Act?
3)
Should the Court strike out the plaintiff’s Charter claim for
being time-barred, pursuant to section 269 of the National Defence Act?
[24]
Subsequently, the Court will consider whether the plaintiff’s
motion should be granted, by answering the following question:
4) Is the defendant estopped from denying the findings of
fact of the MPCC and MPCRB and, consequently, should the Court grant the
plaintiff’s motion for summary judgment? Alternatively, should the Court strike
paragraphs 5, 6, 8 and 9 of the Amended Statement of Defence for being an
attempt to re-litigate those findings of fact, which findings are res
judicata?
TEST FOR SUMMARY JUDGMENT
[25]
The
procedures for summary judgment are found at rules 213 to 219 of the Federal
Courts Rules. The test to establish whether all of the elements are met for
a summary judgment to be granted was elaborated in Granville Shipping Co. v.
Pegasus Lines Ltd., [1996] 2 F.C. 853 (T.D.) at paragraph 8. The seven
general principles are as follows:
1. the purpose of the
provisions is to allow the Court to summarily dispense with cases which ought
not proceed to trial because there is no genuine issue to be tried (Old Fish
Market Restaurants Ltd. v. 1000357 Ontario Inc. et al);2
2. there is no determinative
test (Feoso Oil Ltd. v. Sarla (The))3 but Stone J.A.
seems to have adopted the reasons of Henry J. in Pizza Pizza Ltd. v.
Gillespie.4 It is not whether a
party cannot possibly succeed at trial, it is whether the case is so doubtful
that it does not deserve consideration by the trier of fact at a future trial;
3. each case should be
interpreted in reference to its own contextual framework (Blyth5 and Feoso);6
4. provincial practice rules
(especially Rule 20 of the Ontario Rules of Civil Procedure, [R.R.O.
1990, Reg. 194]) can aid in interpretation (Feoso7 and Collie);8
5. this Court may determine
questions of fact and law on the motion for summary judgment if this can be
done on the material before the Court (this is broader than Rule 20 of the Ontario
Rules of Civil Procedure) (Patrick);9
6. on the whole of the
evidence, summary judgment cannot be granted if the necessary facts cannot be
found or if it would be unjust to do so (Pallman10 and Sears);11
7. in the case of a serious
issue with respect to credibility, the case should go to trial because the
parties should be cross-examined before the trial judge (Forde12 and Sears).13 The mere existence
of apparent conflict in the evidence does not preclude summary judgment; the
court should take a "hard look" at the merits and decide if there are
issues of credibility to be resolved (Stokes).14
[Footnotes omitted]
[26]
Additionally,
in Paszkowski v. Canada (Attorney General), 2006 FC 198, at paragraph
38, Justice Richard Mosley held:
Parties responding to a summary judgment
motion do not have to prove all the facts of their case, rather the evidentiary
burden is to put forward evidence that shows there is a genuine issue for
trial. The burden rests with the party putting forward the motion but all
parties must put their best foot forward: MacNeil Estate v. Canada (Department of Indian and
Northern Affairs),
(2004), 316 N.R. 349, 2004 FCA 50.
[27]
However,
it remains that mere denial of the allegations raised in the moving party’s
pleadings is not sufficient, as stated in rule 215 of the Federal Courts
Rules, which holds that:
215. A response to a motion for summary judgment shall not
rest merely on allegations or denials of the pleadings of the moving party,
but must set out specific facts showing that there is a genuine issue for
trial.
|
215. La
réponse à une requête en jugement sommaire ne peut être fondée uniquement sur
les allégations ou les dénégations contenues dans les actes de procédure
déposés par le requérant. Elle doit plutôt énoncer les faits précis
démontrant l’existence d’une véritable question litigieuse.
|
ANALYSIS
1) Should the Court exercise its discretion to strike all
or portions of the plaintiff’s Statement of Claim as being beyond, or otherwise
not appropriate for the exercise of, jurisdiction over the subject matter of
the claim?
[28]
The defendant maintains that this Court neither possesses,
nor should be inclined to exercise, jurisdiction over the subject matter set
out in the Statement of Claim, and therefore, the Statement of Claim should be
struck, as per rule 221 of the Federal Court Rules.
[29]
In Sokolowska v. Canada, 2005 FCA 29, the Federal Court of Appeal stated the following with
respect to rule 221:
¶ 14 Rule 221 of the Federal
Court Rules, 1998, provides that a Statement of Claim may be struck out on
the ground that it discloses no reasonable cause of action. The Supreme Court
of Canada has, on a number of occasions, made it clear that the applicable test
in deciding whether a pleading should be struck is whether it is plain and
obvious that the claim discloses no reasonable cause of action. In Hunt v.
Carey Canada Inc., [1990] 2 S.C.R. 959 at
980, Madam Justice Wilson reiterated the test in the following terms:
|
Most recently, in Dumont v. Canada (Attorney General),
[1990] 1 S.C.R. 279,
I made clear at p. 280 that it was my view that the test set out in Inuit
Tapirisat was the correct test. The rest remained whether the outcome of the
case was "plain and obvious" or "beyond reasonable
doubt".
|
|
¶ 15 There can also be no
doubt that where the Court does not have jurisdiction over the subject matter
of the action, the Statement of Claim can also be struck. In Hodgson v.
Emineskin Indian Band, [2000] F.C.J. No. 313
(F.C.T.D.) (Q.L.) at paragraph 10, Madam Justice Reed of the Federal Court puts
this proposition in the following terms:
10. [...] The "plain and obvious" test applies to
the striking out of pleadings for lack of jurisdiction in the same manner as it
applies to the striking out of any pleading on the ground that it evinces no
reasonable cause of action. The lack of jurisdiction must be "plain and
obvious" to justify a striking out of pleadings at this preliminary stage.
[30]
The defendant first argues that this
Court has already ruled that it has no jurisdiction to adjudicate upon disputes
relating to rank or service of members of the CF given the nature of that
service (Gallant v. The Queen in Right of Canada (1978), 91 D.L.R. (3d) 695). In response, the plaintiff submits that the Gallant decision
relied on by the defendant must give way to the decision by this Court in Olmstead
v. Canada, [1990] F.C.J. No. 302 (QL),
where it was held that the Court will not and must not decline jurisdiction
over Charter claims advanced by members of the CF and that Gallant,
above, does not apply to bar such claims. In Olmstead, above, Justice
Collier stated the following:
The defendant has impressed upon this Court the
unique character of the relationship between armed forces personnel and the
Crown, which involves the abandonment of civilian status and the giving up of
many civil rights of an ordinary person. Based on that unique
quality, this Court is asked to find that section 15 of the Charter, cannot be
invoked by the plaintiff because he voluntarily assumed this "armed
forces" package of rights and obligations.
I am unable to make such a finding. To do
so would, in my opinion, denigrate the whole purpose of the Charter and would
be contrary to the liberal interpretation which that document
deserves. The defendant cannot take refuge in any kind of exception
or rule of immunity derived from the common law so as to avoid giving effect to
the Charter. I am not persuaded the voluntary assumption of a
profession means that one impliedly agrees to become subjected, without
question, to all the rules which the governing body of that profession might
choose to enact. An individual who voluntarily enters into a
profession or office does not automatically forfeit his rights under the
Charter. Every individual in Canada is guaranteed the equality
provisions of section 15 and the defendant has failed to provide me with any
evidence that would lead me to hold otherwise.
[31]
I agree with the plaintiff on this point: the Court is not
barred from considering Charter claims directed at the Crown simply
because they are brought forth by a member of the Canadian Forces.
[32]
Secondly, the defendant maintains that the plaintiff’s
claim arises out of what is, in essence, a workplace dispute or internal
military dispute. There is substantial and persuasive authority to the effect that
disputes arising out of the terms and conditions of service of members of the
CF, like employees of the Public Service of Canada, are to be dealt with by the
comprehensive redress schemes applicable therein and not by the courts (Vaughan
v. Canada, [2005] 1 S.C.R. 146). Even if this Court is not convinced that
the language of the statute is strong enough to oust the jurisdiction of the
courts, the defendant argues that it should find that the scheme is intended to
be a significant and comprehensive means of internal resolution for matters
that arise directly from internal acts and administration within the CF. In
considering whether the courts should defer to the grievance process under the
PSSRA, the Supreme Court of Canada wrote the following in Vaughan,
above:
¶ 34 Firstly, the
language of the PSSRA sends an unambiguous signal that in the run-of-the-mill
case of benefits conferred by a regulation outside the collective
agreement, the decision of the Deputy Minister or his or her designate should
be final.
¶ 35 Secondly, the
present dispute arises from the employment relationship and falls within the
dispute resolution scheme set out in the PSSRA.
¶ 36 Thirdly, the
appellant's claim to ERI could have been remedied in the s. 91 grievance
procedure. As the Manitoba Court of Appeal stated in Phillips v. Harrison
(2000), 196 D.L.R. (4th) 69, 2000 MBCA 150:
"What is important is that the scheme provide a solution to the
problem" (para. 80).
¶ 37 Fourthly, the
appellant's legal position should not be improved by his failure to grieve the
ERI issue. The dispute resolution machinery under s. 91 was there to be
utilized. Efficient labour relations is undermined when the courts set
themselves up in competition with the statutory scheme (St. Anne Nackawic,
at p. 718; Weber, at para. 41; Regina Police, at para. 26). […]
¶ 38 Fifthly, I do not
accept for reasons already expressed, the central assumption of the appellant's
argument that comprehensive legislative schemes which do not provide for
third-party adjudication are not, on that account, worthy of deference. It is a
consideration, but in the case of the PSSRA it is outweighed by other more
persuasive indications of clues to parliamentary intent.
¶ 39 Sixthly, where
Parliament has clearly created a scheme for dealing with labour disputes, as it
has done in this case, courts should not jeopardize the comprehensive dispute
resolution process contained in the legislation by permitting routine access to
the courts. […]
¶ 40 Seventhly, the fact
that we are dealing with a labour dispute almost a decade old demonstrates (if
demonstration is necessary) that more informal dispute resolution procedures
are generally faster, cheaper, and get the job done.
¶ 41 Finally, the dispute
in question is entirely straightforward. […]
[33]
In applying the considerations set out in Vaughan, above, the defendant submits the
following:
i)
the language of the grievance scheme, coupled with
reservations for other statutorily mandated resolution process, manifests an
intent that the decision of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) be the final
authority (see, for example, sections 29.11 and 29.15 of the National
Defence Act);
ii)
the dispute clearly arises out of the historical and unique
relationship of service flowing from the plaintiff to Her Majesty;
iii)
the claims could have been remedied, and in fact some have
been, by the scheme;
iv)
there are grievance processes which are available and which
cannot, without specific proof, be considered to raise a true conflict;
v)
there are facets of independent review and recommendation
throughout the scheme and in particular, in relation to the core claims of the
plaintiff;
vi)
Parliament has created a comprehensive scheme, with various
overlapping mechanisms to deal with matters of discipline, promotion / rank,
credentials, general grievances, and injuries such as those claimed by the
plaintiff; it would do an injustice to such a scheme to allow routine matters
contemplated to be dealt with thereunder to be brought to court instead of
requiring resort to the more informal, generally faster and cheaper internal process.
[34]
The defendant also maintains that the plaintiff can claim
and can be awarded, based upon the recommendation of the CDS, monetary
compensation from the Deputy Minister of the Department of National Defence or
his delegate, depending on the amount.
[35]
The plaintiff for his part maintains that there is no
complete and comprehensive dispute resolution scheme available to him to hear all
aspects of his claim, including his Charter claims, or to issue the
remedies sought, including any remedy pursuant to subsection 24(1) of the Charter.
For one thing, the plaintiff fully exhausted the grievance procedure without
obtaining any meaningful remedy. The complaints were fully investigated and
considered by the MPCC, only to have the MPCC’s findings and recommendations
fall on deaf ears. In short, while vindicated, the plaintiff was left without
remedy. Furthermore, the plaintiff states that it remains uncontroverted that
none of the decision-making authorities to whom the plaintiff turned to hear
his claim is a “court of competent jurisdiction” within the meaning of subsection
24(1) of the Charter. Furthermore, in applying the criteria identified
in Vaughan, above, the plaintiff submits that his arrest and detention,
the following suspension of his MP credentials and the suspension of his
promotion, cannot reasonably be considered ‘run-of-the-mill’ or nothing more
than a dispute arising from an employment relationship.
[36]
I agree with the defendant that the events of December 12,
2000, and the subsequent events that flowed from these events, have all been addressed
in some way through the various internal process available to the plaintiff.
The circumstances surrounding his arrest and the lawfulness of said arrest were
investigated by the DPM PS, the CFNIS, and the MPCC, with the latter publishing
a very detailed report which essentially supported the plaintiff’s position.
Moreover, the CFNIS conducted an investigation of Sgt Rice who, as a result,
was charged with one count of Neglect to the Prejudice of Good Order and
Discipline, contrary to paragraph 129(2)(b) of the National Defence Act,
and had his credentials suspended for 10 months. As for the suspension of the
plaintiff’s MP credentials, a thorough investigation also took place and the
MPCRB, with the support of the Provost Marshall, restored his credentials.
[37]
That being said, the issue is whether the internal
mechanisms relied on by the plaintiff now prevent him from bringing this action
in negligence and for violation of his Charter rights, before this
Court. While the MPCC did find in its final report that the plaintiff’s Charter
right under paragraph 10(a) had been violated, it did not pronounce on the
section 7 and section 9 rights of the plaintiff. Moreover, the plaintiff
submits that neither the MPCC nor the MPCRB has the jurisdiction to issue Charter
remedies, so that a claim under section 24 flowing from violations of sections
7, 9 and 10, could not be considered by these tribunals. The same is true of
the grievance process under section 29 of the National Defence Act,
presided over by the CDS. As stated by the Court in Vaughan, above, “courts will retain jurisdiction if the remedy sought is not one
which the statutory scheme can provide”.
[38]
Subsection 24(1) of the Charter reads as follows:
24. (1) Anyone whose rights or freedoms, as guaranteed by this
Charter, have been infringed or denied may apply to a court of competent
jurisdiction to obtain such remedy as the court considers appropriate and
just in the circumstances.
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24. (1) Toute personne,
victime de violation ou de négation des droits ou libertés qui lui sont
garantis par la présente charte, peut s'adresser à un tribunal compétent pour
obtenir la réparation que le tribunal estime convenable et juste eu égard aux
circonstances.
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[39]
In R. v. 974649 Ontario Inc., [2001] S.C.R. 575, the
Supreme Court of Canada developed a test in order to determine whether a
particular tribunal could be considered a “court of competent jurisdiction”.
Since I do not believe that it is necessary, in the context of these motions,
to apply this lengthy test, I will simply refer to a recent decision of the
Federal Court in Bernath c. Canada, 2007 CF 104, where Justice Simon
Noël found that the grievance mechanisms for the CF under the National
Defence Act did not constitute a court of competent jurisdiction under
section 24 of the Charter. While the decision did not deal with the MPCC
or the MPCRB specifically, I believe that the analysis can still be applied in
this case, particularly in light of the fact that the MPCC proceeded by way of
a public interest investigation, and did not hold a public hearing on the
matter. In Bernath, above, Justice Noël also considered whether the fact
that the plaintiff had introduced an action before the Court seeking monetary
compensation under the Charter could be considered an abuse of process
in light of the fact that he also filed a grievance relating to the same
events. Justice Noël concluded that there could be no abuse of process, since
the decision-maker under the National Defence Act was not a court of
competent jurisdiction under subsection 24(1) of the Charter. Justice
Noël wrote at paragraphs 98 and 99:
¶ 98
Décider d'une question de droit découlant de la Charte m'apparaît être une
question d'une toute autre nature que celle qui est foncièrement factuelle et
qui nécessite une analyse des faits à la lumière de la documentation
pertinente. Il serait faut de prétendre que, dans le cas des deux demandes,
soit celle que constitue le grief déposé en vertu de l'article 29 de la Loi
sur la défense nationale et celle que constitue l'action introduite par
requête devant cette Cour, la trame factuelle et la réparation monétaire
demandée ne s'apparente aucunement. Faut-il le préciser, le fondement juridique
donnant naissance aux deux recours n'est de toute évidence pas le même. Dans le
cas des griefs, le fondement juridique qui sous-tend sa résolution n'apparaît
pas de lui-même. Certes qu'il y ait des renvois à certaines ORFC et à quelques
lois, la décision du CEMD est en très grande partie une décision factuelle qui
n'est précédée par aucune enquête. Dans le cas de questions d'ordre
constitutionnel découlant de l'application de la Charte, le décideur compétent
doit appliquer la loi suprême du pays à des faits donnés, propres aux
circonstances d'une affaire. Il n'est pas nécessaire d'élaborer davantage sur
cet aspect de la question sachant que le grief devant le CEMD et la documentation
à l'appui ne référaient pas à une question de droit découlant de l'application
de la Charte.
¶ 99
Comment peut-il y avoir abus de procédure alors que le décideur n'avait pas
compétence pour trancher une question de droit en application de la Charte et
d'y octroyer une réparation en conséquence? Il apparaît clairement
qu'il serait impensable de conclure à un abus de procédure compte tenu de la
conclusion à laquelle que j'en arrive en regard de la Charte.
[40]
Consequently, I am not convinced that this Court should
decline jurisdiction to hear this action, on the ground that the plaintiff’s
claims should be dealt with exclusively under the comprehensive internal redress
scheme available to members of the Canadian Forces, since it appears that the
scheme in question may not be sufficient to address all of the plaintiff’s
claims, in particular the plaintiff’s claim pursuant to subsection 24(1) of the
Charter. Therefore, I will now consider separately the defendant’s
arguments as to whether I should strike either or both the negligence claim and
the Charter claims brought by the plaintiff.
2) Should the Court strike out the plaintiff’s negligence
claim for being statute-barred, pursuant to section 9 of the Crown Liability
and Proceedings Act?
[41]
On the specific issue of the plaintiff’s claim for
negligence brought under section 3 of the Crown Liability and Proceedings
Act, the plaintiff seeks compensation for the damage to his career
opportunities, as well as for the adverse effects on his mental health, flowing
from his arrest in December 2000. Section 3 of the Crown Liability and
Proceedings Act provides:
3. The Crown is liable for the damages for
which, if it were a person, it would be liable
(a) in the Province
of Quebec, in respect of
(i) the damage caused by the fault of a
servant of the Crown, or
(ii) the damage resulting from the act of a
thing in the custody of or owned by the Crown or by the fault of the Crown as
custodian or owner; and
(b) in any other province, in respect
of
(i) a tort committed by a servant of the
Crown, or
(ii) a breach of duty attaching to the
ownership, occupation, possession or control of property.
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3. En
matière de responsabilité, l’État est assimilé à une personne pour :
a) dans la province de Québec :
(i) le
dommage causé par la faute de ses préposés,
(ii) le
dommage causé par le fait des biens qu’il a sous sa garde ou dont il est
propriétaire ou par sa faute à l’un ou l’autre de ces titres;
b) dans les autres provinces :
(i) les
délits civils commis par ses préposés,
(ii) les
manquements aux obligations liées à la propriété, à l’occupation, à la
possession ou à la garde de biens.
|
[42]
With regards to the damage to the
plaintiff’s mental health, the defendant notes that the plaintiff was already
awarded compensation by way of a pension for PTSD, arising as a result of his
military duties as a police officer, including the same events upon which he
relies to support this claim. As per section 9 of the Crown Liability and
Proceedings Act, the plaintiff cannot recover twice for the same wrong:
9. No proceedings lie against the Crown or a
servant of the Crown in respect of a claim if a pension or compensation has
been paid or is payable out of the Consolidated Revenue Fund or out of any
funds administered by an agency of the Crown in respect of the death, injury,
damage or loss in respect of which the claim is made.
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9. Ni
l’État ni ses préposés ne sont susceptibles de poursuites pour toute perte —
notamment décès, blessure ou dommage — ouvrant droit au paiement d’une
pension ou indemnité sur le Trésor ou sur des fonds gérés par un organisme
mandataire de l’État.
|
[43]
The defendant also relies on the Supreme Court of Canada
decision in Sarvanis v. Canada, [2002] 1 S.C.R. 921, which discussed the
underlying rationale of section 9 as an attempt to prevent double recovery. Justice
Iacobucci stated at paragraphs 28 and 29:
¶ 28 In
my view, the language in s. 9 of the Crown Liability and Proceedings Act,
though broad, nonetheless requires that such a pension or compensation paid or
payable as will bar an action against the Crown be made on the same factual
basis as the action thereby barred. In other words, s. 9 reflects
the sensible desire of Parliament to prevent double recovery for the same claim
where the government is liable for misconduct but has already made a payment in
respect thereof. That is to say, the section does not require that
the pension or payment be in consideration or settlement of the relevant event,
only that it be on the specific basis of the occurrence of that event that the
payment is made.
¶ 29
This breadth is necessary to ensure that there is no Crown liability under
ancillary heads of damages for an event already compensated. That
is, a suit only claiming for pain and suffering, or for loss of enjoyment of
life, could not be entertained in light of a pension falling within the purview
of s. 9 merely because the claimed head of damages did not match the apparent
head of damages compensated for in that pension. All damages arising
out of the incident which entitles the person to a pension will be subsumed
under s. 9, so long as that pension or compensation is given "in respect
of", or on the same basis as, the identical death, injury, damage or loss.
[44]
Also, in Begg v. Canada (Minister of Agriculture), 2004 FC 659, Justice
Douglas Campbell stated the following with regards to section 9 of the Crown
Liability and Proceedings Act:
¶ 24
The case law acknowledges that the purpose of s.9 of the CLPA is to prevent
double recovery, or enhanced or different damages, for the same incident or
injury or loss where pension or compensation has been paid under a no-fault
scheme analogous to workers' compensation (See Langille v. Canada (Minister
of Agriculture), 44 F.T.R. 60 (T.D.); [1992] 2 F.C. 208
(F.C.A.); Sarvanis v. Canada, [2002] 1 S.C.R. 921; Marsot
v. Canada (Department of National Defence), [2002] 3 F.C. 579
(T.D.)).
[45]
The defendant maintains that the evidence clearly
demonstrates that the plaintiff seeks compensation arising out of the same
events for which he is in receipt of a pension, which alone would be sufficient
to bar this action. More importantly, the evidence supports the conclusion that
the plaintiff sought and obtained compensation for the same damages, in
particular, the emotional and psychological effects that are alleged to have
arisen from his treatment following the December 2000 arrest.
[46]
I agree with the defendant that the plaintiff is barred
under section 9 of the Crown Liability and Proceedings Act from bringing
a claim for damages under section 3 of the Crown Liability and Proceedings
Act based on the damage to his mental health, as he is already receiving
such compensation through his disability pension. As for the alleged damage to
his career, which is essentially a question of the loss of his promotion and
all the benefits that would flow from that, I believe that the proper forum for
addressing this claim is through the grievance process under section 29 of the National
Defence Act, a process which the plaintiff has already initiated, but which
was suspended pending the resolution of his civil claim. The plaintiff is
seeking, through this grievance, the removal of all restrictions placed on this
promotion and that the promotion be made effective as of the actual date it was
intended to be, so that the plaintiff may receive all outstanding entitlements
to such a promotion, including pay, allowances, pension and seniority.
Essentially, if the plaintiff is successful with this grievance, any damage
suffered with respect to his career advancement would be effectively remedied
and could no longer support a negligence claim.
[47]
In the recent decision in Sandiford v. Canada, 2007
FC 225, Madam Justice Carolyn Layden-Stevenson considered an appeal by a member
of the CF against a decision of a prothonotary striking his statement of claim
on the ground that he had not exhausted the statutory grievance scheme. At
paragraphs 26 and 28 of that decision, Justice Layden-Stevenson noted:
¶ 26 As a basic
proposition, when Parliament creates statutory remedies and institutions
designed specifically to provide redress to persons aggrieved, the court should
not lightly intervene before those statutory remedies have been exhausted.
Failure to pursue the available procedures does not render the remedy inadequate:
Lazar v. Canada (Attorney General) (1999), 168 F.T.R. 11 (T.D.)
aff'd. (2001), 271 N.R. 10 (F.C.A.).
[…]
¶ 28 The jurisprudence
holds that the resolution mechanism existing through the grievance procedure in
the National Defence Act constitutes an adequate alternative remedy that must
be exhausted before an individual can turn to the court for redress: Anderson
v. Canada (Canadian Armed Forces), [1997] 1 F.C. 273
(F.C.A.); Gallant v. Canada (1978), 91 D.L.R. (3d) 695
(F.C.T.D.); Jones v. Canada (1994), 87 F.T.R. 190 (T.D.); Pilon
v. Canada (1996) 119 F.T.R. 269 (T.D.);
Villeneuve v. Canada (1997), 130 F.T.R. 134 (T.D.);
Haswell v. Canada (Attorney General (1998), 56 O.T.C. 143 (Gen.
Div.) aff'd. (1998), 116 O.A.C. 395 (C.A.).
[48]
Justice Layden-Stevenson then applied the law to the facts
of that particular case, and concluded as follows:
¶ 31 The genesis of Mr.
Sandiford's complaint is the failure of his superiors to place him where he
wished to be placed. That is a matter that clearly falls within the ambit of
the grievance procedure. Mr. Sandiford's recourse is to pursue his grievance.
He has an adequate alternative remedy. That remedy must be exhausted before he
turns to the court.
[…]
¶ 34 To summarize, Mr.
Sandiford must exhaust the adequate alternative remedy available to him. If, at
the completion of that process, he is dissatisfied with the decision, he may
seek judicial review. It is not open to him to circumvent the process mandated
by Parliament through initiating an action at this time. Consequently, his
action has no chance of success and Prothonotary Lafrenière was quite right to
strike it without leave to amend.
[49]
I believe that the same can be said in this case. The damage
complained of by the plaintiff with respect to his career can best be addressed
through the internal grievance process and he must exhaust this process first.
Should he be dissatisfied with the result of this process, he may then seek
judicial review before this Court.
[50]
In other words, had the plaintiff pursued the internal
remedy, then there is a fair chance that ‘compensation’ would also have been
obtained for the alleged damage to his career, so that he would be clearly
barred from bringing a negligence claim by section 9 of the Crown Liability
and Proceedings Act.
[51]
While it is true that the plaintiff has not yet obtained a
remedy through the grievance process, since the grievance process is automatically
stayed when an action is brought before the courts, I agree with Justice
Layden-Stevenson’s comment in Sandiford, above, that the plaintiff is
the author of his own misfortune, in that his lack of remedy in this situation
is the direct result of his decision to pursue legal actions, rather than to
see the process through to the end. Therefore, I do not see why the plaintiff
should be allowed to bring an action for negligence in this case, when he would
not have been allowed to do so had he properly followed through with the
internal grievance process.
[52]
Therefore, I agree with the defendant that the plaintiff’s
claim for negligence under section 3 of the Crown Liability and Proceedings
Act cannot succeed and should be struck, as it would lead to double-recovery,
which is prohibited under section 9 of the Crown Liability and Proceedings
Act.
3) Should the Court strike out the plaintiff’s Charter
claim for being time-barred, pursuant to section 269 of the National Defence
Act?
[53]
As discussed above, the defendant had argued that this
Court should reject jurisdiction over this action since there was a complete
and comprehensive dispute resolution scheme available to the plaintiff to hear
all aspects of his claim. However, the recent decision from Justice Noël in Bernath,
above, cast some doubt as to whether there existed such a scheme, given his
finding that the CDS was not a court of competent jurisdiction to award damages
pursuant to subsection 24(1) of the Charter. On that basis, I chose to
retain jurisdiction over this action, and to consider the negligence claim and
the Charter claims separately. Having rejected the negligence claim, I
now turn to the Charter claims.
[54]
The defendant submits that the various Charter
claims brought by the plaintiff in this action are time-barred, pursuant to
section 269 of the National Defence Act, which reads as follows:
269.
(1) No action, prosecution or other proceeding lies against any person for an
act done in pursuance or execution or intended execution of this Act or any
regulations or military or departmental duty or authority, or in respect of
any alleged neglect or default in the execution of this Act, regulations or
any such duty or authority, unless it is commenced within six months after
the act, neglect or default complained of or, in the case of continuance of
injury or damage, within six months after the ceasing thereof.
(2)
Nothing in subsection (1) is in bar of proceedings against any person under
the Code of Service Discipline.
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269. (1) Les actions pour un acte accompli en
exécution — ou en vue de l’application — de la présente loi, de ses
règlements, ou de toute fonction ou autorité militaire ou ministérielle, ou
pour une prétendue négligence ou faute à cet égard, se prescrivent par six
mois à compter de l’acte, la négligence ou la faute en question ou, dans le
cas d’un préjudice ou dommage, par six mois à compter de sa cessation.
(2) Le paragraphe (1) n’a pas pour effet d’empêcher l’exercice
des poursuites prévues par le code de discipline militaire.
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[55]
As the defendant notes, Parliament is not competent to
legislatively preclude Charter relief in its entirety, but it is
entitled to place time limits upon such relief (Kingstreet Investments Ltd.
v. New Brunswick, 2007 SCC 1).
[56]
While I have agreed to retain jurisdiction to consider the
validity of the plaintiff’s claim under subsection 24(1) of the Charter,
the first thing to keep in mind is that section 24 is not a stand-alone
provision. Rather, section 24 is a ‘remedies’ provision which must attach to a
violation of another provision of the Charter, in order to take effect.
In this case, the plaintiff argues that his rights have been violated under
sections 7, 9 and 10(a) of the Charter, and that, as a consequence of
these violations, he should be entitled to damages under subsection 24(1). Specifically,
the plaintiff alleges that his arrest and subsequent detention were a breach of
his right to life, liberty and security of the person as guaranteed by section
7, of his right not to be arbitrarily detained or imprisoned, as guaranteed by
section 9, and of his right, on arrest or detention, to be informed promptly of
the reasons therefor, as guaranteed by paragraph 10(a) of the Charter.
[57]
The problem with the plaintiff’s action is that all of
these alleged violations of his Charter rights clearly relate directly to
his arrest and detention on December 12, 2000, that is to say approximately four
and half years prior to the plaintiff filing his action. As such, the defendant
argues that the plaintiff’s action is time-barred, as per the operation of
section 269 of the National Defence Act, which imposes a six-month
limitation period on taking legal actions.
[58]
The plaintiff however asserts that there has been a ‘continuance
of injury or damage’ such that the six-month limitation period runs only from
the date of the discovery of the last known continuance of injury or harm, on
or about January 27, 2005, which falls within the six-month limitation period.
On the facts as pleaded by the plaintiff, the April 15, 2002 decision to
suspend the plaintiff’s MP credentials was a discrete act clearly predicated on
the December 12, 2000 arrest. It was, in effect, a continuance of the arrest.
Moreover, on the facts as pleaded by the plaintiff, the November 27, 2002 decision
to place in abeyance the plaintiff’s promotion to Master Corporal, pending
resolution of the suspension of his MP credentials, was also a discrete act
clearly predicated on the April 15, 2002 decision to suspend the plaintiff’s MP
credentials. Like the credentials suspension decision on which it was premised,
the promotion abeyance was, in effect, a continuance of the arrest. Therefore,
the defendant’s suspension of the plaintiff’s MP credentials, and the
defendant’s abeyance of the plaintiff’s promotion, both directly attributable
to the December 12, 2000 arrest, were each a continuance of injury or damage
within the meaning of section 269 of the National Defence Act.
[59]
Furthermore, while the abeyance of the plaintiff’s
promotion occurred in November 2002, the plaintiff submits that the general
rule of discoverability applies, such that the cause of action arises, for
purposes of a limitation period, when the material facts on which it is based
have been discovered or ought to have been discovered by the plaintiff (Central
Trust Co. v. Rafuse, [1986] 2 S.C.R. 147). In this case, the plaintiff
filed an Access to Information Request on March 8, 2004, but only received the
information on or about January 27, 2005.
[60]
While the defendant does not question the rule of
discoverability, he does question the plaintiff’s interpretation of the notion
of continuance of damages. The defendant argues that it is a well-known legal
principle that damages arise as of the date of the injury; the fact that the
damages are ongoing in the sense that they stem from a particular incident does
not mean that the cause of action continues. The actual cause of action itself
must continue and give rise to continuing damages before a claimant can assert that
the limitation period continues to run. Furthermore, where, as in the case at
bar, events in question are discrete, such as a claim for wrongful arrest, or
other job promotional activities, and did not continue afresh to cause new and
thereby ongoing damage (i.e. there is no ongoing tort), the action cannot be
advanced (Smith v. Baltzer, [2001] N.B.J. No. 488 (Q.B.)).
[61]
On the facts of this case, I am more inclined to agree with
the defendant’s interpretation of the notion of continuance of damages. While
there is clearly a link between the events as described by the plaintiff, I do
not believe that this link is strong enough so that the discovery of a loss of
promotion in January 2005 could anchor a claim under sections 7, 9 and 10(a) of
the Charter, for injury or damages resulting from an arrest that took
place in December 2000.
[62]
Moreover, I have already stated that this is not the proper
forum for the plaintiff to obtain a remedy for his loss of promotion, as it is
clearly something that should be remedied through the internal grievance
process. As such, it would be difficult for me to, on the one hand, refuse to
consider a claim for negligence resulting in a loss of promotion because such
damage should be compensated through the internal grievance process, and then
on the other hand, to allow this loss of promotion to be the continuance of
injury that anchors a claim for damages under subsection 24(1) of the Charter.
After all, if the plaintiff pursues the internal grievance process for this
loss of promotion, as he should have done in the first place, and obtains a
remedy, then there will be no more “injury or damage” created by the loss of
promotion that would allow for this “continuance”, and thus place the
plaintiff’s claim within the limitation period.
[63]
As such, I agree with the defendant that the plaintiff is
time-barred from bringing the various Charter claims, and so those
portions of the statement of claim should also be struck.
[64]
Consequently, the defendant’s motion for summary judgment
will be granted, as I am not satisfied that the plaintiff’s action discloses a
genuine issue to be tried.
4) Is the defendant estopped from denying the findings of
fact of the MPCC and MPCRB and, consequently, should the Court grant the
plaintiff’s motion for summary judgment? Alternatively, should the Court strike
paragraphs 5, 6, 8 and 9 of the Amended Statement of Defence for being an
attempt to re-litigate those findings of fact, which findings are res judicata?
[65]
The plaintiff also sought summary judgment against the
defendant, in whole or in part, with the exception of the determination of
damages payable, pursuant to Federal Courts Rules 213, 216 or 218, on
the basis that the defendant’s pleadings allege certain facts that were
previously before the MPCC and the MPCRB, and that the defendant is thus
seeking to re-litigate those findings of facts, which findings are res
judicata. In the alternative, the plaintiff asked the Court to strike
paragraphs 5, 6, 8 and 9 of the Amended Statement of Defence, pursuant to rule
221.
[66]
In light of my findings above, it will not be necessary to
address the parties’ arguments in great detail. Suffice it to say that the
plaintiff has failed to establish the necessary elements to be granted summary
judgment. Essentially, the plaintiff is claiming that there are no issues to be
resolved at trial other than the damages payable. Yet, in his reply to the
defendant’s motion for summary judgment, the plaintiff insists that the
defendant relies on hotly contested facts, the resolution of which will require
a trial, as the interests of justice would not be best served were the
important questions of fact raised by the defendant determined on the expedited
basis entailed by the summary judgment motion. Unfortunately, the plaintiff
cannot have it both ways.
[67]
The plaintiff also failed to convince this Court that it
should grant the motion to strike the impugned paragraphs from the Amended
Statement of Defence for disclosing no reasonable defence, not having met his
burden of proving that the paragraphs sought to be struck are so clearly
immaterial, frivolous, embarrassing or abusive that it is obviously forlorn and
futile. Furthermore, I agree with the defendant that this motion to strike
portions of the Amended Statement of Defence on such grounds should have been
brought forth much earlier in the process (Dene Tsaa First Nation v. Canada, 2001 FCT 820).
[68]
Moreover, in light of the Court’s decision to grant the
defendant’s motion for summary judgment, it is clear that the plaintiff’s
motion cannot succeed. Therefore, the plaintiff’s motion pursuant to rules 213,
216 and 221 of the Federal Courts Rules will be denied.
ORDER
THIS COURT ORDERS that
1.
The
defendant’s motion for summary judgment and for striking the claim is allowed.
2.
The
plaintiff’s motion for summary judgment and for striking
paragraphs 5, 6, 8 and 9 of the Amended Statement of Defence is denied;
3.
This
action is therefore dismissed;
4.
One set of
costs in favour of the defendant.
“Pierre
Blais”
ANNEX
RELEVANT STATUTORY PROVISIONS
Federal Courts Rules, SOR/98-106
3. These
Rules shall be interpreted and applied so as to secure the just, most
expeditious and least expensive determination of every proceeding on its
merits.
53. (1) In making an order under these Rules,
the Court may impose such conditions and give such directions as it considers
just.
(2) Where these Rules provide that the Court
may make an order of a specified nature, the Court may make any other order
that it considers just.
213. (1) A plaintiff may, after the defendant has filed a
defence, or earlier with leave of the Court, and at any time before the time
and place for trial are fixed, bring a motion for summary judgment on all or
part of the claim set out in the statement of claim.
(2) A defendant may, after serving and filing a defence
and at any time before the time and place for trial are fixed, bring a motion
for summary judgment dismissing all or part of the claim set out in the
statement of claim.
215. A response to a motion for summary judgment shall not
rest merely on allegations or denials of the pleadings of the moving party,
but must set out specific facts showing that there is a genuine issue for
trial.
216. (1) Where on a motion for summary judgment the Court is
satisfied that there is no genuine issue for trial with respect to a claim or
defence, the Court shall grant summary judgment accordingly.
(2) Where on a motion for summary judgment the Court is
satisfied that the only genuine issue is
(a)
the amount to which the moving party is entitled, the Court may order a trial
of that issue or grant summary judgment with a reference under rule 153 to
determine the amount; or
(b)
a question of law, the Court may determine the question and grant summary
judgment accordingly.
(3) Where on a motion for summary judgment the Court
decides that there is a genuine issue with respect to a claim or defence, the
Court may nevertheless grant summary judgment in favour of any party, either
on an issue or generally, if the Court is able on the whole of the evidence
to find the facts necessary to decide the questions of fact and law.
(4) Where a motion for summary judgment is dismissed in
whole or in part, the Court may order the action, or the issues in the action
not disposed of by summary judgment, to proceed to trial in the usual way or
order that the action be conducted as a specially managed proceeding.
218. Where summary judgment is refused or is granted only in
part, the Court may make an order specifying which material facts are not in
dispute and defining the issues to be tried, including an order
(a)
for payment into court of all or part of the claim;
(b)
for security for costs; or
(c)
limiting the nature and scope of the examination for discovery to matters not
covered by the affidavits filed on the motion for summary judgment or by any
cross-examination on them and providing for their use at trial in the same
manner as an examination for discovery.
221. (1) On motion, the Court may, at any time, order that a
pleading, or anything contained therein, be struck out, with or without leave
to amend, on the ground that it
(a)
discloses no reasonable cause of action or defence, as the case may be,
(b)
is immaterial or redundant,
(c)
is scandalous, frivolous or vexatious,
(d)
may prejudice or delay the fair trial of the action,
(e)
constitutes a departure from a previous pleading, or
(f)
is otherwise an abuse of the process of the Court,
and may order the action be dismissed or judgment entered
accordingly.
(2)
No evidence shall be heard on a motion for an order under paragraph (1)(a).
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3. Les présentes règles sont interprétées et
appliquées de façon à permettre d’apporter une solution au litige qui soit
juste et la plus expéditive et économique possible.
53. (1) La
Cour peut assortir toute ordonnance qu’elle rend en vertu des présentes
règles des conditions et des directives qu’elle juge équitables.
(2) La
Cour peut, dans les cas où les présentes règles lui permettent de rendre une
ordonnance particulière, rendre toute autre ordonnance qu’elle juge
équitable.
213. (1) Le
demandeur peut, après le dépôt de la défense du défendeur — ou avant si la
Cour l’autorise — et avant que l’heure, la date et le lieu de l’instruction
soient fixés, présenter une requête pour obtenir un jugement sommaire sur
tout ou partie de la réclamation contenue dans la déclaration.
(2) Le
défendeur peut, après avoir signifié et déposé sa défense et avant que
l’heure, la date et le lieu de l’instruction soient fixés, présenter une
requête pour obtenir un jugement sommaire rejetant tout ou partie de la
réclamation contenue dans la déclaration.
215. La
réponse à une requête en jugement sommaire ne peut être fondée uniquement sur
les allégations ou les dénégations contenues dans les actes de procédure
déposés par le requérant. Elle doit plutôt énoncer les faits précis
démontrant l’existence d’une véritable question litigieuse.
216. (1)
Lorsque, par suite d’une requête en jugement sommaire, la Cour est convaincue
qu’il n’existe pas de véritable question litigieuse quant à une déclaration
ou à une défense, elle rend un jugement sommaire en conséquence.
(2)
Lorsque, par suite d’une requête en jugement sommaire, la Cour est convaincue
que la seule véritable question litigieuse est :
a) le montant auquel le requérant a droit, elle peut ordonner l’instruction
de la question ou rendre un jugement sommaire assorti d’un renvoi pour
détermination du montant conformément à la règle 153;
b) un point de droit, elle peut statuer sur celui-ci et rendre un
jugement sommaire en conséquence.
(3)
Lorsque, par suite d’une requête en jugement sommaire, la Cour conclut qu’il
existe une véritable question litigieuse à l’égard d’une déclaration ou d’une
défense, elle peut néanmoins rendre un jugement sommaire en faveur d’une
partie, soit sur une question particulière, soit de façon générale, si elle
parvient à partir de l’ensemble de la preuve à dégager les faits nécessaires
pour trancher les questions de fait et de droit.
(4)
Lorsque la requête en jugement sommaire est rejetée en tout ou en partie, la
Cour peut ordonner que l’action ou les questions litigieuses qui ne sont pas
tranchées par le jugement sommaire soient instruites de la manière habituelle
ou elle peut ordonner la tenue d’une instance à gestion spéciale.
218.
Lorsqu’un jugement sommaire est refusé ou n’est accordé qu’en partie, la Cour
peut, par ordonnance, préciser les faits substantiels qui ne sont pas en
litige et déterminer les questions qui doivent être instruites, ainsi que :
a) ordonner la consignation à la Cour d’une somme d’argent représentant la
totalité ou une partie de la réclamation;
b) ordonner la remise d’un cautionnement pour dépens;
c) limiter la nature et l’étendue de l’interrogatoire préalable aux
questions non visées par les affidavits déposés à l’appui de la requête en
jugement sommaire, ou limiter la nature et l’étendue de tout
contre-interrogatoire s’y rapportant, et permettre l’utilisation de ces
affidavits lors de l’interrogatoire à l’instruction de la même manière qu’à
l’interrogatoire préalable.
221. (1) À
tout moment, la Cour peut, sur requête, ordonner la radiation de tout ou
partie d’un acte de procédure, avec ou sans autorisation de le modifier, au
motif, selon le cas :
a) qu’il ne révèle aucune cause d’action ou de défense valable;
b) qu’il n’est pas pertinent ou qu’il est redondant;
c) qu’il est scandaleux, frivole ou vexatoire;
d) qu’il risque de nuire à l’instruction équitable de l’action ou de la
retarder;
e) qu’il diverge d’un acte de procédure antérieur;
f) qu’il constitue autrement un abus de procédure.
Elle peut aussi ordonner que l’action soit
rejetée ou qu’un jugement soit enregistré en conséquence.
(2)
Aucune preuve n’est admissible dans le cadre d’une requête invoquant le motif
visé à l’alinéa (1)a).
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National Defence Act, R.S.C. 1985,
c. N-5
29. (1) An officer or non-commissioned member who has been
aggrieved by any decision, act or omission in the administration of the
affairs of the Canadian Forces for which no other process for redress is
provided under this Act is entitled to submit a grievance.
(2) There is no right to grieve in respect of
(a)
a decision of a court martial or the Court Martial Appeal Court;
(b)
a decision of a board, commission, court or tribunal established other than
under this Act; or
(c)
a matter or case prescribed by the Governor in Council in regulations.
(3) A grievance must be submitted in the manner and in
accordance with the conditions prescribed in regulations made by the Governor
in Council.
(4) An officer or non-commissioned member may not be
penalized for exercising the right to submit a grievance.
(5) Notwithstanding subsection (4), any error discovered
as a result of an investigation of a grievance may be corrected, even if
correction of the error would have an adverse effect on the officer or
non-commissioned member.
250.38 (1) If at any time the Chairperson considers it
advisable in the public interest, the Chairperson may cause the Complaints
Commission to conduct an investigation and, if warranted, to hold a hearing
into a conduct complaint or an interference complaint.
269. (1) No
action, prosecution or other proceeding lies against any person for an act
done in pursuance or execution or intended execution of this Act or any
regulations or military or departmental duty or authority, or in respect of
any alleged neglect or default in the execution of this Act, regulations or
any such duty or authority, unless it is commenced within six months after
the act, neglect or default complained of or, in the case of continuance of
injury or damage, within six months after the ceasing thereof.
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29. (1) Tout officier ou militaire du rang qui
s’estime lésé par une décision, un acte ou une omission dans les affaires des
Forces canadiennes a le droit de déposer un grief dans le cas où aucun autre
recours de réparation ne lui est ouvert sous le régime de la présente loi.
(2) Ne peuvent toutefois faire l’objet d’un
grief :
a) les
décisions d’une cour martiale ou de la Cour d’appel de la cour martiale;
b) les
décisions d’un tribunal, office ou organisme créé en vertu d’une autre loi;
c) les
questions ou les cas exclus par règlement du gouverneur en conseil.
(3) Les griefs sont déposés selon les
modalités et conditions fixées par règlement du gouverneur en conseil.
(4) Le dépôt d’un grief ne doit entraîner
aucune sanction contre le plaignant.
(5) Par dérogation au paragraphe (4), toute
erreur qui est découverte à la suite d’une enquête sur un grief peut être
corrigée, même si la mesure corrective peut avoir un effet défavorable sur le
plaignant.
250.38 (1) S’il l’estime préférable dans l’intérêt
public, le président peut, à tout moment en cours d’examen d’une plainte pour
inconduite ou d’une plainte pour ingérence, faire tenir une enquête par la
Commission et, si les circonstances le justifient, convoquer une audience
pour enquêter sur cette plainte.
269. (1) Les actions pour un acte accompli en
exécution — ou en vue de l’application — de la présente loi, de ses
règlements, ou de toute fonction ou autorité militaire ou ministérielle, ou
pour une prétendue négligence ou faute à cet égard, se prescrivent par six
mois à compter de l’acte, la négligence ou la faute en question ou, dans le
cas d’un préjudice ou dommage, par six mois à compter de sa cessation.
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Crown Liability and Proceedings
Act, R.S.C. 1985, c. C-50
3. The Crown is liable for the damages for
which, if it were a person, it would be liable
(a) in the Province of Quebec, in
respect of
(i) the damage caused by the fault of a
servant of the Crown, or
(ii) the damage resulting from the act of a
thing in the custody of or owned by the Crown or by the fault of the Crown as
custodian or owner; and
(b) in any other province, in respect
of
(i) a tort committed by a servant of the
Crown, or
(ii) a breach of duty attaching to the
ownership, occupation, possession or control of property.
9. No proceedings lie against the Crown or a
servant of the Crown in respect of a claim if a pension or compensation has
been paid or is payable out of the Consolidated Revenue Fund or out of any
funds administered by an agency of the Crown in respect of the death, injury,
damage or loss in respect of which the claim is made.
10. No proceedings lie against the Crown by
virtue of subparagraph 3(a)(i) or (b)(i) in respect of any act
or omission of a servant of the Crown unless the act or omission would, apart
from the provisions of this Act, have given rise to a cause of action for
liability against that servant or the servant’s personal representative or
succession.
24. In any proceedings against the Crown, the
Crown may raise
(a) any defence that would be
available if the proceedings were a suit or an action between persons in a
competent court; and
(b) any defence that would be
available if the proceedings were by way of statement of claim in the Federal
Court.
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3. En
matière de responsabilité, l’État est assimilé à une personne pour :
a) dans la province de Québec :
(i) le
dommage causé par la faute de ses préposés,
(ii) le
dommage causé par le fait des biens qu’il a sous sa garde ou dont il est
propriétaire ou par sa faute à l’un ou l’autre de ces titres;
b) dans les autres provinces :
(i) les
délits civils commis par ses préposés,
(ii) les
manquements aux obligations liées à la propriété, à l’occupation, à la
possession ou à la garde de biens.
9. Ni
l’État ni ses préposés ne sont susceptibles de poursuites pour toute perte —
notamment décès, blessure ou dommage — ouvrant droit au paiement d’une
pension ou indemnité sur le Trésor ou sur des fonds gérés par un organisme
mandataire de l’État.
10. L’État
ne peut être poursuivi, sur le fondement des sous-alinéas 3a)(i) ou b)(i),
pour les actes ou omissions de ses préposés que lorsqu’il y a lieu en
l’occurrence, compte non tenu de la présente loi, à une action en
responsabilité contre leur auteur, ses représentants personnels ou sa
succession.
24. Dans
des poursuites exercées contre lui, l’État peut faire valoir tout moyen de
défense qui pourrait être invoqué :
a) devant un tribunal compétent dans une instance entre personnes;
b) devant la Cour fédérale dans le cadre d’une demande introductive.
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