Desjardins
J.A.:
This
is
an
application
for
judicial
review
of
a
decision
of
the
Tax
Court
of
Canada!
which
dismissed
an
appeal
from
an
assessment
against
the
applicant
made
by
the
Minister
of
National
Revenue
(the
“Minister”)
pursuant
to
subsection
160(1)
of
the
Income
Tax
Act.
At
issue
is
whether
the
Tax
Court
judge
erred
when
he
concluded
that
the
applicant’s
husband
had
transferred
property
indirectly
to
the
applicant
when
the
husband
made
mortgage
payments
on
a
house
in
which
the
applicant
had
become
the
sole
owner,
with
the
result
that
she
has
now
become
liable
for
a
portion
of
taxes
her
husband
owes
to
the
respondent
in
respect
of
his
1990,
1991,1992
and
1993
taxation
years.
The
facts
The
case
proceeded
by
way
of
an
agreed
statement
of
facts.
The
applicant
and
her
husband,
Mr.
John
Medland,
purchased
a
house
in
1985
as
joint
tenants.
The
purchase
was
financed
in
part
by
way
of
a
mortgage
loan
from
the
Toronto
Dominion
Bank.
They
were
joint
mortgagors.
The
mortgage,
which
was
renewed
a
number
of
times,
was
secured
by
the
property.
On
April
8,
1987,
the
applicant
and
her
husband,
as
joint
tenants,
transferred
the
property
to
the
applicant
alone
without
any
consideration
being
given.
The
husband
then,
alone,
made
all
payments
on
the
mortgage
for
a
total
sum
of
$39,979.74.
The
mortgage
payments
were
made
by
Mr.
Medland
issuing
cheques
to
the
Toronto
Dominion
Bank
from
his
personal
and
business
accounts
and
directing
that
the
funds
from
those
cheques
be
used
to
make
the
mortgage
payments.
On
June
10,
1994,
the
Minister
assessed
the
applicant
$38,857.48
pursuant
to
section
160
of
the
Income
Tax
Act
representing
the
lesser
of
(a)
Mr.
Medland’s
unpaid
liability
under
the
Income
Tax
Act
of
British
Columbia
and
section
36
of
the
Canada
Pension
Plan,
and
(b)
the
value
of
property
allegedly
transferred
by
Mr.
Medland
to
the
applicant.
The
applicant
objected
to
the
assessment.
The
Minister
later
reassessed
the
applicant
thereby
reducing
the
amount
assessed
to
$15,219.56
on
the
basis
that
the
value
of
the
property
allegedly
transferred
to
the
applicant
was
not
more
than
the
sum
of
the
mortgage
payments
attributable
to
the
principal,
namely
$13,321.69
plus
$1,897.87
in
interest.
Mr.
Medland
is
indebted
to
the
Minister
in
excess
of
$49,000
as
of
June
10,
1994,
in
respect
(i)
the
amount,
if
any,
by
which
the
fair
market
value
of
the
property
at
the
time
it
was
transferred
exceeds
the
fair
market
value
at
that
time
of
the
consideration
given
for
the
property,
and
(ii)
the
aggregate
of
all
amounts
each
of
which
is
an
amount
that
the
transferor
is
liable
to
pay
under
this
Act
in
or
in
respect
of
the
taxation
year
in
which
the
property
was
transferred
or
any
preceding
taxation
year,
but
nothing
in
this
subsection
shall
be
deemed
to
limit
the
liability
of
the
transferor
under
any
other
provision
of
this
Act.
of
his
1990,
1991,
1992
and
1993
taxation
years,
of
which
$24,288.83
was
in
respect
of
federal
taxes.
The
decision
under
review
Before
the
Tax
Court
judge,
the
applicant
submitted
that
her
husband
never
transferred
property
to
her,
either
directly
or
indirectly,
pursuant
to
subsection
160(1)
of
the
Income
Tax
Act.
The
mortgage
payments
were
made
directly
to
the
Bank.
Mr.
Medland,
she
said,
paid
his
own
liability
to
the
Bank.
Following
the
transfer
by
the
applicant
and
her
husband
of
the
property
to
the
applicant
alone
on
April
8,
1987,
Mr.
Medland
remained
fully
liable
to
the
Bank.
His
liability
under
the
mortgage
in
question
was
joint
and
several
with
that
of
the
applicant.
Thus,
she
argued,
there
was
no
indirect
transfer
of
property.
If
a
benefit
was
conferred
an
the
applicant,
it
was
not
covered
by
subsection
160(1)
of
the
Income
Tax
Act.
The
Tax
Court
judge
made
the
following
observations:
It
is
apparent
that
section
160
of
the
Income
Tax
Act
is
directed
only
at
transfers
of
property.
This
section
is
not
aimed
at
the
conferral
of
benefits,
as
correctly
pointed
out
by
Counsel
for
the
Appellant.
In
this
regard,
section
160
is
unlike
subsection
15(1)
of
the
Act
which
requires
the
inclusion
in
a
shareholder’s
income
of
any
benefit
he
may
receive
from
the
corporation
of
which
he
is
a
shareholder.
Section
160
deals
with
transfers
of
property
like
the
present
sections
74.1
and
74.2
which
set
out
the
attribution
rules.
The
wording
relating
to
the
circumstances
which
trigger
the
application
of
section
160
is
similar
to
some
extent
to
the
language
used
in
sections
74.1
and
74.2
of
the
Income
Tax
Act.
Having
regard
to
the
foregoing
observations
respecting
the
Appellant’s
rights
in
the
subject
property
and
the
ambit
of
section
160
of
the
Income
Tax
Act,
1
do
not
agree
with
the
proposition
advanced
by
the
Appellant
that
a
reduction
in
the
Appellant’s
liability
under
the
mortgage
to
the
extent
of
$13,321.69
as
a
direct
result
of
the
payments
made
to
the
mortgagee
by
Mr.
Medland
does
not
constitute
property.
The
examination
of
two
hypothetical
situations
leads
me
to
the
conclusion
that
such
reduction
in
the
Appellant’s
liability
amounts
to
an
indirect
transfer
of
property
made
by
Mr.
Medland
to
the
Appellant.
He
proceeded
to
examine
two
hypothetical
situations:
In
the
first
situation,
termed
Example
“A”,
I
am
assuming
that
Mr.
Medland,
instead
of
paying
a
little
over
$13,000
to
the
mortgage
towards
the
principal
of
the
mortgage,
had
made,
with
the
agreement
of
the
mortgagee,
a
balloon
payment
when
he
was
indebted
to
the
Government
of
Canada
in
respect
of
federal
taxes
and
paid
the
full
amount
owing
under
the
mortgage.
In
such
an
eventuality,
there
is
no
doubt
that
this
payment
would
have
constituted
a
transfer
of
property
because
the
Appellant
would
have
acquired
the
right
to
redeem
the
property
because
a
“right
of
whatever
kind’’
is
property,
according
to
the
definition
of
the
term
“property”
in
section
248
of
the
Income
Tax
Act.
One
can
imagine
another
case,
which
I
describe
as
Example
“B”,
where
a
person
in
Mr.
Medland’s
situation
would
have
made
just
a
few
regular
payments
to
the
mortgagee,
which
payments
happen
to
represent
the
last
payments
to
be
made
under
the
mortgage.
On
this
assumption,
an
individual
like
the
Appellant
would
be
entitled
to
redeem
the
property
and
would
be
left
with
an
unhampered
fee
simple
if,
of
course,
there
was
no
other
encumbrance
on
the
property.
Again
the
right
to
redeem
the
mortgage
would
constitute
property
within
the
meaning
of
section
248
of
the
Income
Tax
Act,
as
I
have
just
explained.
I
don't
see
between
Examples
“A”
and
“B"
on
the
one
hand
and
the
present
case
on
the
other
hand
any
substantial
difference.
In
each
of
these
two
examples,
the
situation
is
simply
more
apparent,
more
conspicuous
because
the
right
to
redeem
property
and
to
secure
full
title
is
undoubtedly
property
having
regard
to
the
wide
import
of
the
term
“property”
in
section
248
of
the
Act.
It
would
be
highly
artificial,
if
not
absurd,
to
conclude
on
the
one
hand
that
in
Examples
“A”
arid
“B”
the
payments
in
question
involve
the
transfer
of
property
and
on
the
other
hand
assert
that
the
making
of
regular
payments
do
not
happen
to
include
the
last
payment
which
gives
rise
to
the
right
to
redeem
the
property.
Such
a
result
would
be
clearly
uninlended.
He
then
concluded:
The
matter
can
be
looked
at
in
a
very
simple
fashion.
If
Mr.
Medland
had
made
the
regular
payments
directly
to
his
wife
out
of
his
own
moneys
and
if
his
wife
had
each
time
immediately
thereafter,
used
these
moneys
to
make
payments
directly
to
the
mortgagee
it
could
not
be
challenged
that
these
payments
would
constitute
a
direct
transfer
of
property
to
his
wife.
Mr.
Medland,
instead
of
making
the
regular
payments
owing
under
the
mortgage
to
his
wife,
made
them
to
the
mortgagee
at
a
time
where
his
wife
was
the
sole
owner
of
equity
of
redemption.
This
in
my
view,
constitutes
an
indirect
transfer
of
property.
Looking
at
the
overall
situation,
I
am
persuaded
that
the
regular
payments
made
by
Mr.
Medland
to
the
mortgagee
when
the
Appellant
was
the
sole
owner
of
the
equity
of
redemption
had
a
dual
effect
from
the
standpoint
of
Mr.
Medland
and
the
Appellant:
a)
Mr.
Medland
paid
his
own
liability
under
the
mortgage
and
b)
Mr.
Medland
transferred
property
indirectly
to
his
wife
with
respect
to
the
portion
of
the
payments
that
related
to
the
principal
of
the
mortgage.
These
two
results
are
inextricably
linked.
In
my
view,
the
Appellant
in
submitting
that
Mr.
Medland
simply
satisfied
his
own
liability
by
making
these
payments
is
ignoring
an
important
aspect
of
the
situation,
the
other
side
of
the
coin,
so
to
speak.
There
was
a
transfer
of
economic
interest
involving
the
equity
of
redemption
in
favour
of
his
wife,
as
in
the
Kieboom
decision.
I
am
therefore
of
the
view
that
Mr.
Medland
had
transferred
property
during
the
relevant
period
to
the
Appellant
in
an
indirect
way
within
the
purview
of
section
160
of
the
Income
Tax
Act.
Consequently,
the
assessment
made
by
the
Minister
of
National
Revenue
in
respect
of
this
transfer
of
property
is
confirmed.
The
applicant’s
submission
In
essence,
the
applicant
submits
that,
given
that
she
provided
no
consideration
to
Mr.
Medland
in
exchange
for
his
making
the
payments
under
the
mortgage,
subsection
160(1)
of
the
Income
Tax
Act
could
only
apply
if
Mr.
Medland
“transferred
property
either
directly
or
indirectly
“to
her”
by
means
of
a
trust
or
by
any
other
means
whatever”.
This,
she
says,
did
not
happen.
The
applicant
accepts
the
proposition
that
the
more
Mr.
Medland
made
payments
on
the
mortgage,
the
less
indebted
she
found
herself
towards
the
mortgagee.
She
argues,
however,
that
a
reduction
in
the
applicant’s
liability
under
the
mortgage
does
not
constitute
“property”
being
transferred,
even
if
the
word
“property”
is
of
wide
import.
.
A
reduction
in
the
applicant’s
liability
is
a
result,
or
an
event,
but
is
not
a
property
being
transferred.
She
submits
that
in
order
for
a
“transfer”
to
occur,
Mr.
Medland
must
have
had
divested
himself
of
a
particular
property
and
that
same
property,
under
the
decision
of
Fasken
Estate
v.
Minister
of
National
Revenue^
must
have
become
vested
in
the
applicant.
Mr.
Medland
divested
himself
of
money
(something
included
in
the
word
“property”)
but
he
made
his
payments
directly
to
the
mortgagee
and
not
to
the
applicant.
She
submits
that
at
all
material
times
after
April
8,1987,
the
date
upon
which
Mr.
Medland
transferred
his
interest
in
the
property
to
her,
she
was
the
sole
owner
of
the
equity
of
redemption
.
The
Tax
Court
judge
erred,
she
says,
when
he
stated,
in
both
of
his
hypothetical
situations,
that
the
equity
of
redemption
would
have
passed
to
her
had
a
balloon
payment
or
the
last
payment
of
the
mortgage
been
made
by
the
husband.
The
Tax
Court
judge
was
also
in
error,
she
claims,
when
he
calculated
that,
by
making
the
princi-
pal
payments,
“[t]here
was
a
transfer
of
economic
interest
involving
the
equity
of
redemption
in
favour
of
his
wife,
as
in
the
Kieboom
decision”.
In
that
decision,
she
says,
the
transferor
therein
owned
a
specific
portion
or
percentage
of
the
“equity”
of
a
corporation
which
he
transferred
to
his
spouse
and
children
by
compelling
the
corporation
to
issue
some
common
shares
to
them,
thereby
diluting
his
interest
in
the
corporation.
In
the
present
case,
she
says,
when
Mr.
Medland
divested
himself
of
money
by
making
the
payments,
the
net
value
of
the
equity
of
redemption
of
the
applicant
in
the
house
increased
by
the
amount
of
the
principal
payments.
That
net
value
is
expressed
in
money
but
is
not
money
in
itself.
Had
Parliament
intended
subsection
160(
1
)
of
the
Income
Tax
Act
to
apply
to
the
facts
in
issue,
the
word
“amount”
defined
in
subsection
248(1)
of
the
Income
Tax
Act
which
includes
“the
value
in
terms
of
money
of
the
right
or
thing”,
would
have
been
used
in
subsection
160(1)
instead
of
the
word
“property”.
In
any
event,
she
says,
even
if
Mr.
Medland
made
the
payments
on
her
behalf,
that
situation
is
not
caught
by
subsection
160(1)
of
the
Income
Tax
Act.
The
words
“on
behalf
of”
his
spouse
are
not
found
in
that
section
as
they
are
found
in
paragraph
224(1.1)(b)
of
the
Act.
While
it
is
clear
that
the
applicant
benefitted
from
Mr.
Medland
making
the
principal
payments,
she
claims
that
conferring
a
benefit
does
not
come
within
the
purview
of
subsection
160(1)
of
the
Act.
Such
language
is
to
be
found
in
subsections
15(1)
and
74.1(1),
but
not
in
subsection
160(1).
Analysis
As
a
preliminary
comment,
the
respondent
does
not
dispute
the
applicant’s
proposition
that
no
“right
to
redeem
the
property”
was
transferred
to
the
applicant
as
a
direct
consequence
of
the
mortgage
payments
made
by
her
spouse
on
the
debt
owing
under
the
mortgage.
That
right
existed
earlier
when
she
became
the
sole
owner
of
the
property.
Perhaps,
the
first
judge
confused
the
“equity
of
redemption”
and
the
“right
to
redeem”
with
the
concept
of
“equity”
itself.
This
should
not
deter
us,
however,
from
recognizing
the
correct
direction
he
gave
to
this
case.
It
is
not
disputed
that
the
tax
policy
embodied
in,
or
the
object
and
spirit
of
subsection
160(1),
is
to
prevent
a
taxpayer
from
transferring
his
property
to
his
spouse
in
order
to
thwart
the
Minister’s
efforts
to
collect
the
money
which
is
owned
to
him
.
The
issue
turns,
however,
on
the
proper
meaning
lo
be
given
to
the
terms
used
in
subsection
160(1)
of
the
Act,
namely
whether
Mr.
Medland
“transferred
property
...
indirectly
by
any
other
means”
to
his
wife.
In
my
view,
the
Tax
Court
judge
was
correct
when
he
concluded
that
the
applicant’s
spouse
transferred
property
indirectly
to
the
applicant
to
the
extent
of
the
portion
of
the
mortgage
payments
that
related
to
the
principal
of
the
mortgage.
The
word
“property”
in
subsection
160(1)
of
the
Act,
which
is
defined
as
meaning
“property
of
any
kind”,
including
“money”,
has
been
described
by
Lord
Langdale
as
“the
most
comprehensive
of
all
the
terms
which
can
be
used
inasmuch
as
it
is
indicative
and
descriptive
of
every
possible
interest
which
the
party
can
have”.
The
word
“transfer”
is
not
defined
in
the
Act.
It
was
commented
upon
in
the
Fasken
Estate
v.
Minister
of
National
Revenue^
by
President
Thorson
of
the
Exchequer
Court
of
Canada
in
the
following
terms:
The
word
“transfer”
is
not
a
term
of
art
and
has
not
a
technical
meaning.
It
is
not
necessary
to
a
transfer
of
property
from
a
husband
to
his
wife
that
it
should
be
made
in
any
particular
form
or
that
it
should
be
made
directly.
All
that
is
required
is
that
the
husband
should
so
deal
with
the
property
as
to
divest
himself
of
it
and
vest
it
in
his
wife,
that
is
to
say,
pass
the
property
from
himself
to
her.
The
means
by
which
he
accomplishes
this
result,
whether
direct
or
circuitous,
may
properly
be
called
a
transfer.
The
plain
fact
in
the
present
case
is
that
the
property
to
which
Mrs.
Fasken
became
entitled
under
the
declaration
of
trust,
namely,
the
right
to
receive
a
portion
of
the
interest
on
the
indebtedness,
passed
to
her
from
her
husband
who
had
previously
owned
the
whole
of
the
indebtedness
out
of
which
the
right
to
receive
a
specified
portion
of
the
interest
on
it
was
carved.
If
David
Fasken
had
conveyed
this
piece
of
property
directly
to
his
wife
by
a
deed
such
conveyance
would
clearly
have
been
a
transfer.
The
fact
that
he
brought
about
the
same
result
by
indirect
or
circuitous
means,
such
as
the
novation
referred
to
by
counsel
involving
the
intervention
of
trustees,
cannot
change
the
essential
character
of
the
fact
that
he
caused
property
which
had
previously
belonged
to
him
to
pass
to
his
wife.
In
my
opinion,
there
was
a
transfer
of
property
from
David
Fasken
to
his
wife
within
the
meaning
of
the
Act.
The
circumstances
of
that
case
ought
not
to
be
forgotten.
The
taxpayer
had
bought
a
farm
in
Texas
by
means
of
a
corporation
of
which
he
originally
owned
nearly
all
the
shares.
The
title
to
the
farm
was
vested
in
the
company
subject
to
a
lien
indebtedness
in
his
favour
for
the
unpaid
purchase
price.
In
1920,
he
transferred
his
shares
to
his
son
and
was
never,
thereafter,
a
shareholder,
director
or
officer
of
the
company.
He
did,
however,
retain
his
rights
against
the
company
in
respect
of
the
unpaid
purchase
price
of
the
farm
and
other
advances.
In
1924,
the
company
executed
an
acknowledgement
of
indebtedness
in
favour
of
three
trustees,
one
of
them
representing
the
wife
of
the
taxpayer.
What
Mrs.
Fasken
became
entitled
to,
under
the
declaration
of
trust,
was
the
right
to
receive
a
portion
of
the
interest
on
the
indebtedness
passed
on
to
her
from
her
husband
who
had
previously
owned
the
whole
of
the
indebtedness
out
of
which
her
right
to
receive
a
portion
of
the
interest
had
been
carved.
By
applying
the
phrases
“transfer
...
of
property...”
of
subsection
[4](4)
of
the
Income
Tax
[War]
Act
of
1917
to
that
situation,
Thorson
P.
indicated,
in
effect,
that,
contrary
to
the
submission
of
the
applicant
in
the
case
at
bar,
it
is
not
necessary
that,
when
a
husband
divest
himself
of
a
particular
property,
that
same
property
must
have
become
vested
in
his
spouse.
The
words
“indirectly
...
by
...
any
other
means”
in
subsection
160(1)
of
the
Act
refer
to
any
circuitous
way
in
which
property
of
any
kind
passes
from
one
person
to
another.
In
the
case
at
bar,
when
Mr.
Medland
made
the
payments
to
the
mortgagee,
he
specified
that
such
money
was
to
be
attributed
in
diminution
of
the
mortgage
on
the
property
on
which
he
had
no
more
interest.
While
it
is
true
that
subsection
160(1)
of
the
Act
does
not
contain
the
words
“for
the
benefit
of
or”
on
behalf
of
as
found
in
subsections
15(1)
or
74.1(1)
or
paragraph
224(1.1
)(b)
of
the
Act,
the
applicant
does
not
deny
that
she
became
less
indebted
by
the
payments
and
her
equity
in
the
property
increased.
The
means
by
which
this
result
occurred
were
monies
paid
to
the
Bank
which
was
then
transferred
by
the
Bank
on
the
account
of
the
mortgage
of
a
house
owned
solely
by
the
applicant.
The
payment
to
the
Bank
was
simply
a
conduit
through
which
the
funds
passed
indirectly
from
her
husband
to
her.
The
applicant’s
submission,
that
no
transfer
of
property
occurred
because
what
Mr.
Medland
divested
himself
was
money
which
monies
were
never
transferred
[physically]
to
the
applicant,
is
without
merit.
The
present
scheme,
although
different
from
that
in
Kieboom
v.
Minister
of
National
Revenue^
and
White
v.
R.
amounts
to
the
same
thing.
I
would
dismiss
this
application
for
judicial
review.
Application
dismissed.